I have a question regarding the command for Christians to worship. A little background- I was saved 7 years ago straight into a Reformed church. I've followed lots of arguments regarding catholics, orthodox, etc. but I have little interaction with some of the stranger parts of evangelicalism. I have recently encountered a fellow from a more generic Christian group who says that Christians are not commanded to "worship" exactly.
The argument is something like this: first he makes a strong distinction between latreia and proskynesis (and states this distinction carries through to the Hebrew equivalents for "bow down" and "serve" in the 3rd commandment), and says that latreia (service) was commanded to the Old Testament believers with strict rules of observance since it is what man was "giving" to God. Proskynesis (bowing down), while in some sense can be given to kings or other honorable people, is in a more ultimate sense given only to God. Proskynesis is more of a devotion or allegiance rather than a set of things to observe in contrast to latreia. Jesus' death and resurrection fulfilled all latreia so there is no more worship due God. Instead, we continue to have prokynesis, so no worshipping false gods, bowing to angels, or burning incense to Caesar. Gatherings then are not worship but are more like informal meetings of Christians to build each other up. This means that all arguing about what we do in worship is silly, because the command for service to God has been fulfilled. We are only left with a club of likeminded people to hang out with whenever, even on Sundays if you want.
In contrast, I have always seen the command to "gather together publicly to give God adoration" the thing that was instituted with Moses, and while it certainly changed significantly with Christ's death and resurrection the "gathering together" command has not changed. I'm having a hard time getting to the bottom of this because I don't know Greek or Hebrew. I am getting the sense that he is trying to separate these words too much but I have no way of knowing. I am having trouble finding a New Testament passage that explicitly commands worship rather than gathering together
Wondering if anyone has some insight or resources. I think solving this would really help my understanding of the regulative principle generally.
The argument is something like this: first he makes a strong distinction between latreia and proskynesis (and states this distinction carries through to the Hebrew equivalents for "bow down" and "serve" in the 3rd commandment), and says that latreia (service) was commanded to the Old Testament believers with strict rules of observance since it is what man was "giving" to God. Proskynesis (bowing down), while in some sense can be given to kings or other honorable people, is in a more ultimate sense given only to God. Proskynesis is more of a devotion or allegiance rather than a set of things to observe in contrast to latreia. Jesus' death and resurrection fulfilled all latreia so there is no more worship due God. Instead, we continue to have prokynesis, so no worshipping false gods, bowing to angels, or burning incense to Caesar. Gatherings then are not worship but are more like informal meetings of Christians to build each other up. This means that all arguing about what we do in worship is silly, because the command for service to God has been fulfilled. We are only left with a club of likeminded people to hang out with whenever, even on Sundays if you want.
In contrast, I have always seen the command to "gather together publicly to give God adoration" the thing that was instituted with Moses, and while it certainly changed significantly with Christ's death and resurrection the "gathering together" command has not changed. I'm having a hard time getting to the bottom of this because I don't know Greek or Hebrew. I am getting the sense that he is trying to separate these words too much but I have no way of knowing. I am having trouble finding a New Testament passage that explicitly commands worship rather than gathering together
Wondering if anyone has some insight or resources. I think solving this would really help my understanding of the regulative principle generally.
