...the state has been given the authority to judge the actions that arise out of bad moral intentions. Am I saying the state should judge kids who do not go to bed on time....nope that is the parents spear of authority. I am saying the state has the authority to disapline those that pratice discrimination as per #2 in your definition.
2: racial prejudice or discrimination
Do you believe the state has the authority to judge
all actions that have a motive of racial prejudice or discrimination, or only a particular subset? More generally, does this apply to perceived superiority in general, or only perceived genetic superiority?
Consider the following hypothetical cases:
1. A person maintains a generally civil attitude towards those he believes to be inferior, but admits privately to holding the opinion that those with a particular characteristic are superior.
....a. Alternatively, consider that he admits this opinion publicly, or that he argues for it in a public context.
2. A person refuses to enter into a relationship (as a friend, coworker, employee, employer, spouse, teacher, student, seller, buyer, etc.) with someone because he believes he is superior.
3. A person actively attempts to discredit/displease someone he believes is inferior in order to convince them to leave his community.
4. A person actively attempts, in cooperation with others or alone, to force someone he believes is inferior to do something against their will.
Which of these would you argue should be illegal?