Well, this could go on and on I guess.
If someone is interested in commenting on Joshua 10 and Isaiah 38 as to how it is to be taken phenomenologically, that would be helpful.
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This sounds to me like a mistake that man would make that is not inherent in the text.But we have to realize that ancient man wouldn't have had our modern cosmology and would have thought it common sense that the sun is bigger than some star light years away, even though in actual fact it isn't.
I don't think that's the issue. Agreeing with your point, I really don't think Einstein needs to be pitted against Scripture here.
His theory is based on and supported by observations. Those observations may be mind-blowing in some ways, but they are measurable and usable.
Ok; who is speaking in the text? Whose voice tells us that the sun stood still for about a day? If your answer is Joshua, and not the Holy Spirit... can you cite another text where the narrator of a historical passage gives us untrue information because he didn't understand what he was seeing?In terms of the texts, yes, the sun did stop/move backwards...to any observer on earth using common everyday language. It is not wrong.
I didn't think it was the problem. I wasn't interested in refuting it.Relativity is the problem? How is it that it’s refuted?
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Loaded question...can you cite another text where the narrator of a historical passage gives us untrue information because he didn't understand what he was seeing?
I meant explain how an event described as happening in space and time (in a historical narrative of Scripture) can be taken phenomenologically. The texts in Joshua and Isaiah have markers of time and measurement in them: "for about a day" and the sun returning "10 degrees."
Relativity is the problem? How is it that it’s refuted?
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The reason they do it is because they believe that M-M implies the earth is standing still if relativity is incorrect.Like @VictorBravo I don't think relativity is a problem one way or another. I was originally attempting to demonstrate that there's very good evidence supporting it. I'm still not exactly sure why some geocentric arguments find it necessary to challenge relativity.
Well let me ask you then in an unloaded way.Loaded question fallacy
Absolutely.Do you believe the narrator of Joshua 10 is Joshua inspired by the Holy Spirit?
Still a loaded question. You are assuming in the very premise of your question that phenomenological language is in fact misinterpretation. It is not.And that Joshua under inspiration reported the sun's movement as fact, which was in fact not true, because he misinterpreted what he saw?
Which brings me back full circle as I've asked several times (maybe you'll answer this, Taylor): how, using the proper hermenuetic in exegeting a historical narrative, can the events and narrative (language) of Joshua 10 and Isaiah 38 be taken phenomenologically?Absolutely.
Still a loaded question. You are assuming in the very premise of your question that phenomenological language is in fact misinterpretation. It is not.
The same way I take what the weatherman says every morning when he tells me what time the sun rose.Which brings me back full circle as I've asked several times (maybe you'll answer this, Taylor): how, using the proper hermenuetic in exegeting a historical narrative, can the events and narrative (language) of Joshua 10 and Isaiah 38 be taken phenomenologically?
Ok, well I'll leave it at that. It's disappointing that no one wishes to deal with these passages! Perhaps someone at some point will be willing to do so, either to show, as Raymond mentioned above (post #155), why they cannot be taken as phenomenological, or why they must be taken so.The same way I take what the weatherman says every morning when he tells me what time the sun rose.
Sister,Ok, well I'll leave it at that. It's disappointing that no one wishes to deal with these passages! Perhaps someone at some point will be willing to do so, either to show, as Raymond mentioned above (post #155), why they cannot be taken as phenomenological, or why they must be taken so.
Didn’t mean to be rude Taylor.Sister,
I have to confess, I found this to be a very frustrating, rude, and dismissive response. I'm not sure exactly what you're looking for when you ask for someone to "show" how these passages are supposed to be read. There is nothing in Hebrew (or Greek, or English, or probably any other language) that tells the reader, "Hey, what you're reading here is phenomenological language." The way language works is that the receiver typically will know when such conventions are being used. There's nothing to be "shown" here. What are you looking for?
But regardless of what you're looking for, the response you gave to me here was not the way to encourage further discussion with you.
I took from your last short response that the conversation was over. I’d have thought that the request to “show” how the passage can be taken phenomenologically, would be understood to mean exegete the passage according to sound hermeneutical principles. It’s a historical narrative; what place is there in a historical narrative for phenomenological language? Is there any other historical narrative in the Bible where this occurs? Gordon Fee says of historical narratives, “Narratives record what happened.” Where is the place in a biblical narrative for the insertion of an observation based on the narrator’s mistaken interpretation of what he saw?Logan, I just think that the Holy Spirit told us what happened. The passage says that Joshua spoke to the Lord, and what he said to the Lord(!) was “Sun, stand thou still upon Gibeon; and thou moon, in the valley of Ajalon.” Then the Bible tells us that the sun stood still and the moon stayed. It goes on to say that “there was no day like that before or after it, that the Lord hearkened to the voice of a man.” It’s just remarkable! Joshua was speaking to God when he commanded the sun, and there was nothing like it before or since. The markers of the time that the sun and moon halted (“about a day”); all that makes it impossible for me to get around this being an account of what took place in every detail.Hi Jeri, I had another thought and I think I've shared this before. Basically I think we often get ingrained in a perspective and it's hard to see the other perspective,
But imagine if you will that the model God created is a heliocentric one (or one where smaller bodies orbit greater bodies) and try this mental exercise: How would the Spirit communicate, through the Biblical author, the events of Joshua 10 and Isaiah 38? Would it be something along the lines of "Joshua commanded the sun to stand still but God understood the outcome he truly intended and instead stopped the earth's rotation so that the sun didn't move out of the sky from Joshua's point of view"? Or do you have a different suggestion? I would posit that he would still communicate it in exactly the same way that he did.
Which is why I'm convinced that the passage doesn't make a comment on any celestial model one way or the other. The sun stopped in the sky. How? We don't know whether it was the earth's rotation or the universe's rotation or some combination or something else. But it did and was a wonderful miracle!
This is speculation. We do not know what he would or would not have done. Someone could make the same thought experiment about some miracle of Christ, saying the miracle was not what it appeared to be because of our scientific understanding, and that the language would be communicated in the same way.How would the Spirit communicate, through the Biblical author, the events of Joshua 10 and Isaiah 38? Would it be something along the lines of "Joshua commanded the sun to stand still but God understood the outcome he truly intended and instead stopped the earth's rotation so that the sun didn't move out of the sky from Joshua's point of view"? Or do you have a different suggestion? I would posit that he would still communicate it in exactly the same way that he did.
That sounds right but you’re talking about simply a matter of location, not the reality of what happened. I don’t think what you bring up is a phenomenological issue? Unless I’m misunderstanding.Mmm, sorry, but just one more point. Even those advocating reading a it as "the sun stopped therefore it's the sun that moves and not the earth", read it a bit phenomenologically. The passage says "Sun, stand thou still upon Gibeon; and thou, Moon, in the valley of Ajalon. And the sun stood still, and the moon stayed".
But none of us takes that to strictly to mean that the sun hung like a New Year's ball exactly over Gibeon, regardless of one's perspective, but from Joshua's perspective. If one had been in a different latitude or longitude, it would have looked like it hung over a different location, but that doesn't make it a less historically accurate account.
Where is there a rule that says narrative cannot use phenomenological language? I'm not aware of one....what place is there in a historical narrative for phenomenological language?
The problem with answering this question is that, even if examples could be given, you have prejudged as a matter of principle that such occurrence must of necessity be something else. It's like when an atheist says, "Miracles cannot happen because they're impossible." Well, such a presupposition makes substantive interaction well nigh impossible.Is there any other historical narrative in the Bible where this occurs?
Yes, and phenomenological language doesn't prohibit or contradict that. As a matter of historical fact, due to the earth's rotation, I saw the sun set a little while ago.Gordon Fee says of historical narratives, “Narratives record what happened.”
Loaded question.Where is the place in a biblical narrative for the insertion of an observation based on the narrator’s mistaken interpretation of what he saw?
Did the sun stand still upon Gibeon and the moon over Ajalon? Yes, from Joshua's point of view but not from the perspective of someone in a different latitude/longitude.That sounds right but you’re talking about simply a matter of location, not the reality of what happened. I don’t think what you bring up is a phenomenological issue? Unless I’m misunderstanding.
Sure it's speculation. I said as much. But I would venture to say it is a useful one. If both perspectives reconcile perfectly to the language the Bible uses, and the passage isn't intended to teach either, then it can't be said that the passage demands one or the other. And it does not mean that one devolves immediately into liberalism and starts explaining away all miracles.This is speculation. We do not know what he would or would not have done. Someone could make the same thought experiment about some miracle of Christ, saying the miracle was not what it appeared to be because of our scientific understanding, and that the language would be communicated in the same way.