Does anyone familiar with early church history know how the saints sang the psalms? I take it the Jewish converts had more options because of language and, well, psalm-singing obviously being part of Old Covenant worship. How did Greek-speaking Gentile converts sing the psalms? Was the Septuagint translation of the Psalms already set for singing? Or, is there evidence/records that they re-worked the Septuagint Psalter to make it singable?
Septuagint Psalter
- Thread starter lunarWood
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Clearly both Greek and Latin speaking churches ended up singing the psalms in those languages, so it isn't hard to believe that this practice began with the early church. However, as we have seen, the Jews and later the church repeatedly preserved the singing and recitation of scriptures in liturgical languages that were not strictly tied to the common language. So I'm sure some in the early church may have learned to sing the psalms in Hebrew if they had the opportunity to do so.
On the other hand, the Septuagint translations of the psalms contain some additional liturgical instructions in the superscripts of some of the psalms. This seems to indicate that Greek-speaking Jews used these translations liturgically and possibly in actual song. So there may have been a pre-existing Greek psalmody available to the early church.
On the other hand, the Septuagint translations of the psalms contain some additional liturgical instructions in the superscripts of some of the psalms. This seems to indicate that Greek-speaking Jews used these translations liturgically and possibly in actual song. So there may have been a pre-existing Greek psalmody available to the early church.
Alexander Suarez
Puritan Board Freshman
Good day Luke,
I may be wrong, but it appears there is an assumption in your question that the church has needed a metered psalter in order to evidence that the psalms were sung. However, as you'll find in early writings and up into this day, chanting and recitation of the psalms (among other methods) were such common practices that utilized the translations as they had available to them. You also have to factor in illiteracy as being much more common, thereby influencing prudential decisions in the singing of psalms. Hence the Directory for the Publick Worship of God (1645):
CasualWestminsterEnjoyer
Puritan Board Senior
It wasn't reworked. They just chanted it in a way similar to Lutheran chanting, if you've ever visited a Lutheran church. So it's sung, but non-metrical.
Here is a recording of what that sounds like for Psalm 100 (my apologies for the image of Christ in the video; Lutheran churches have those. I don't endorse it.)
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Claes Jacob Heijndericksz
Puritan Board Freshman
The early church chanted the psalms. Chanting can be done with any translation. Anglican chant and the melodies of the Genevan Psalter evolved from Gregorian chant. Likewise, Gregorian chant and Eastern Orthodox chant evolved from Jewish synagogue and temple chant. Most of the psalm would be recited on a single tone known as the reciting tone. As a psalm verse was divided into two parts, the ends of these parts would be sung more elaborately. This elaboration would be melismatic (similar to arabic singing). This chant practice led to the creation of fixed formulas or psalm tones. The cantor would sing a psalm verse, and then the congregation would join in. What the congregation sang depended on the local practice; it might be as simple as the single word "Hallelujah." The chants were sung in unison.
In Gregorian chant, the refrains became more and more elaborate until they had become complete hymns. At that stage, the singing of the psalm verses was omitted entirely, and choirs had taken over the role of the congregation. In Eastern Orthodox chant, the same happened. With the development of music, the chants had become polyphonic in the West during the late Middle Ages and the Renaissance.
In Gregorian chant, the refrains became more and more elaborate until they had become complete hymns. At that stage, the singing of the psalm verses was omitted entirely, and choirs had taken over the role of the congregation. In Eastern Orthodox chant, the same happened. With the development of music, the chants had become polyphonic in the West during the late Middle Ages and the Renaissance.
Hi Alex. You made a good point. I did ignorantly assumed that the psalms were sung without considering chanting, which was common. Good point on illiteracy as well.
Theoretical
Puritan Board Professor
Here's an extensive example of Psalm singing via chant:
But for the present, where many in the congregation cannot read, it is convenient that the minister, or some other fit person appointed by him and the other ruling officers, do read the psalm, line by line, before the singing thereof.
So, for those who could not read, were they expected to sing the psalm completely from memory after just hearing it read (immediately prior to singing it)?
iainduguid
Puritan Board Junior
Ah, OK...thank you for that clarification. That makes total sense now.
I was thinking - knowing how bad my memory is - if I had to sing an entire psalm from memory after just hearing it once, I would be in big trouble!
But with the line by line, and the repetition, I can see how that would be doable.
I think our memory would be times better if not for the devices of modernity — too many distractions!Ah, OK...thank you for that clarification. That makes total sense now.
I was thinking - knowing how bad my memory is - if I had to sing an entire psalm from memory after just hearing it once, I would be in big trouble!
But with the line by line, and the repetition, I can see how that would be doable.
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