jwright82
Puritan Board Professor
“The Septuagint: What It Is and Why It Matters,” by Gregory R. Lanier and William A. Ross | Modern Reformation
In 2021, I challenged myself to read the entire New Testament in Greek. I failed. If the purpose of my resolution was to complete the entire NT in under a year, I clearly fell short. I just began 2 Corinthians with only a few weeks to go in the calendar year. But if the greater […]
Here's a review of a book I'm currently reading to introduce myself to this subject. It's a fascinating subject.
My question is, I keep reading in my research that the Apostles used the Septuagint to quote the OT. How do they know that? I'm 3/4 through the book and maybe I'm impatient but why does everyone keep saying that?
Couldn't they have just translated it directly themselves? Also the term "Septuagint" gives the impression of a single monolithic thing but it's better to say "Septuagint's" plural. Wouldn't their translation count as a "Septuagint" translation without looking at whatever Septuagint they had to quote?
Or am I overthinking this being that translation type stuff is not my strong suit? Thanks in advance.