My KJV Bible translates 1 John 2:23 as follows:
Whosoever denieth the Son, the same hath not the Father: [but] he that acknowledgeth the Son hath the Father also.
Does anyone know why they put the last half of the verse in italics and the 'but' in brackets?
Modern translations do not do this so I understand it is not a textual variant.
Whosoever denieth the Son, the same hath not the Father: [but] he that acknowledgeth the Son hath the Father also.
Does anyone know why they put the last half of the verse in italics and the 'but' in brackets?
Modern translations do not do this so I understand it is not a textual variant.