JesusIsLord
Puritan Board Freshman
Hello all, I was recently conversing with a brother about 1John1:8 and he asked about confessing our sins. The question was " why does the Lord command us to ask for forgiveness for sins even after being Justified.
I explained that the passage may be speaking of confessing sins because even after Justification, we displease God with sin so to confess would be to "restore" from displeasing God.
However after reading it a few times over, this text isn't talking about confessing to restore at all. Am I reading the passage incorrectly?
I explained that the passage may be speaking of confessing sins because even after Justification, we displease God with sin so to confess would be to "restore" from displeasing God.
However after reading it a few times over, this text isn't talking about confessing to restore at all. Am I reading the passage incorrectly?