Daniel 2:8 and 2:16 gaining time v appointing a time

[Eoghan]

I was intrigued to hear Jay Adams describe the Chaldeans as attempting to postpone the whole matter until the zodiac was in such a position as (in their terms) interpretation of prophecy was impossible. 05732 Nde ‘iddan (Aramaic) id-dawn’

This is apparently a different word from 02166 Nmz z@man (Aramaic) zem-awn’ which is the "time" Daniel sought.

Can anyone clarify this little gem that the Chaldeans were procrastinating until the holiday season for interpretations arrived?

 

[Peairtach]

The King knew what his dream was, but he wanted to be certain that these men were the real deal and so hid the dream from them, and asked for the dream and its interpretation (?) Is this the opinion taken by some commentators?

 

[Eoghan]

Jay Adams is saying that the Chaldeans were playing not for time but rather a specific time.

Looking at the New Testament. In Greek I believe that we do not know the time but are expected to recognise the season of Jesus' return. In a similar way there is a distinction between the time (season) looked for by the Chaldeans and the time (date) Daniel intended to appear before the king.

I have looked in vain for specific info. from the LXX I suspect that it uses Greek terms in a similar way to the new testament.

Could some nice person check? (I tried using the free "online Bible" from Cananda but it is hit and miss )

 

[Eoghan]

OK spent more time in "Canada" and pinpointed the LXX using the word 2540 kairov kairos kahee-ros’ this is frequently translated season (Young's Analytical Lexocon) and Daniel uses 5550 cronov chronos khron’-os which is frequently translated time and is the term I believe from which we get our watch?

This brings us no nearer to the comments by Jay Adams sadly!