OldPathSeeker
Puritan Board Freshman
I have recently been engaged with the question, “Did Jesus pray the penitential portions of the penitential psalms in such a way as to include Himself along with His people?” Are we to understand that, whenever Jesus quoted a portion of a psalm concerning Himself, He was in reality quoting the entire psalm as applying to Himself?
I believe, for many reasons, He did not include Himself in the penitential portions of penitential psalms. For example, consider the words of Psalm 32:5, ". . . I said, "I will confess my transgressions to the LORD"; And Thou didst forgive the guilt of my sin." Jesus was never "forgiven". Rather He paid the full price for our sin. How then could He pray a prayer seeking forgiveness? Consider Psalm 51:10, "Create in me a clean heart, O God. . . ." Though He bore our sins, Jesus was never defiled or polluted by our sin. From eternity He has always had a perfectly holy and righteous heart. How then could He petition the Father for a clean heart? Another question I have is, What is the philosophy or theological motive for ascribing such penitential prayers to our ever-holy Savior?
I believe, for many reasons, He did not include Himself in the penitential portions of penitential psalms. For example, consider the words of Psalm 32:5, ". . . I said, "I will confess my transgressions to the LORD"; And Thou didst forgive the guilt of my sin." Jesus was never "forgiven". Rather He paid the full price for our sin. How then could He pray a prayer seeking forgiveness? Consider Psalm 51:10, "Create in me a clean heart, O God. . . ." Though He bore our sins, Jesus was never defiled or polluted by our sin. From eternity He has always had a perfectly holy and righteous heart. How then could He petition the Father for a clean heart? Another question I have is, What is the philosophy or theological motive for ascribing such penitential prayers to our ever-holy Savior?