Follow along with the video below to see how to install our site as a web app on your home screen.
Note: This feature may not be available in some browsers.

Just so you know, the PCA's BCO allows for anyone to read the scriptures (and I disagree):
The Public Reading of the Holy Scriptures
50-1. The public reading of the Holy Scriptures is performed by the minister as God’s servant. Through it God speaks most directly to the congregation, even more directly than through the sermon. The reading of the Scriptures by the minister is to be distinguished from the responsive reading of certain portions of Scripture by the minister and the congregation. In the former God addresses His people; in the latter God’s people give expression in the words of Scripture to their contrition, adoration, gratitude and other holy sentiments. The psalms of Scripture are especially appropriate for responsive reading.
50-2. The reading of the Holy Scriptures in the congregation is a part of the public worship of God and should be done by the minister or some other person.
50-3. The Holy Scriptures of the Old and New Testaments shall be read from a good translation, not a paraphrase, in the language of the people, that all may hear and understand.
50-4. How large a portion shall be read at once is left to the discretion of every minister; and he may, when he thinks it expedient, expound any part of what is read; always having regard to the time, that neither reading, singing, praying, preaching, nor any other ordinance, be disproportionate the one to the other; nor the whole rendered too short, or too tedious.
This is not correct. The official position of the PCA (which is not followed in many churches) is that women are not to give the public reading of the Scriptures. This follows a General Assembly rebuke of a Presbytery (South Florida, I believe) for allowing a woman to read Scripture publicly. The GA cited the usual texts.
1997 and 1998 GAs, the reports of the Committee on Review of Presbytery Record.
Thanks, I'll check them out.
Still confused about BCO Ch. 50 para. 2 "The reading of the Holy Scriptures in the congregation is a part of the public worship of God and should be done by the minister or some other person."
1997 and 1998 GAs, the reports of the Committee on Review of Presbytery Record.
Would this say anything about women leading responsive reading?
1997 and 1998 GAs, the reports of the Committee on Review of Presbytery Record.
(Sorry for the resurrection of an old thread, but I was actually thinking and talking about this yesterday.)
From the posts in this thread, it's plain that I'm of the minority opinion on this matter, but . . . how do we deduce (from Scripture) that a woman's reading of Scripture in corporate worship is to be disallowed? Is it to be considered "teaching", for some reason?
I have just switched to a new church having moved back to my parents. The only half decent church allows women to do the Bible Readings...what should I do?
For what it is worth to my good Presbyterian friends, most conservative orthodox continuing Anglican Churches do not allow female lay readers, because it is in effect......teaching.![]()
Chuckle! Glad you agree with the "Church of the Proper Fork".Agreed. Good for them.
(Sorry for the resurrection of an old thread, but I was actually thinking and talking about this yesterday.)
From the posts in this thread, it's plain that I'm of the minority opinion on this matter, but . . . how do we deduce (from Scripture) that a woman's reading of Scripture in corporate worship is to be disallowed? Is it to be considered "teaching", for some reason?
My first question is, where is it taught in scripture that women are allowed to read scripture?
Secondly, The bible teaches you about God. Therefore, just reading it sparks the mind.
So besides 1 Cor. 14 and West. Standards, why shouldn't women read Scripture?
Weaksauce, Andrew. Earlier in the same letter, Paul acknowledges that women may prophesy in the gathering of the church (he's talking about headcoverings there, which is a separate issue, but it should be recognized).
Just as in the 1 Tim passage I cited, the issue of women's "silence" seems to be set against the usurping of authority from God-appointed men (". . . they are not permitted to speak, but should be in submission"). Does the mere act of a woman audibly and visibly speaking to the church gathered necessarily mean that she's being unsubmissive? I don't know. Surrounding context suggests that he's setting "silence" against confusion, disorderliness, and disruptiveness . . . not simple audibility and visibility.
(And again, I have to ask, shall we use this passage to force women to not sing or otherwise participate in the liturgy? It's easy to do if we ignore context.)
As for the Westminster Standards, women seem to be included in the "some other person" provision (unless that's not where you're aiming).