How do we respond to an atheist who says that the laws of logic are a product of the human mind/brain, and that all human minds function in the same way, and therefore logic is binding as long as there are human minds/brains . How do we prove that the laws of logic are metaphysical and exist outside of own existence.
I have argued that if the laws of logic only exist within the human mind then they couldn't be universally binding on all human minds. In others words if there claim was true then we would have multiple laws of logic, making them subjective rather than objective. Is this sound argumentation?
VanVos
[Edited on 10-23-2005 by VanVos]
I have argued that if the laws of logic only exist within the human mind then they couldn't be universally binding on all human minds. In others words if there claim was true then we would have multiple laws of logic, making them subjective rather than objective. Is this sound argumentation?
VanVos
[Edited on 10-23-2005 by VanVos]