RamistThomist
Puritanboard Clerk
Not sure if you understand my point in post #55. Where does the writer to the Hebrews specifically state that he did not receive instruction from Christ individually? Heb. 2:3 doesn't seem to make clear what you propose.
In my best Inigo Montoya voice (*throat clear*) "I do not think it means what you think it means."
I don't need to prove that. That's special pleading. He includes himself within the category of those who haven't seen Christ. That's the most natural way to read the text and is usually the default position of exegetes. He doesn't speak like an apostle.