Curt,
Thats my point.
Keith,
We're really not dialoging here; you're not thinking about my posts. If you were, you would see that I have mentioned a few things that are significantly important to this discussion and interact with them.
For instance, for the sake of the conversation:
1) I have mentioned a few scriptures which show some knowledge is in fact required (to see the kingdom), i.e. John 3:3, Matt 13:23, Rom 10:17 Luke 23:39
The centurion knew that Jesus was God. He feared greatly. The thief next to Jesus knew. He called Christ Lord and mentioned His kingdom.
2) That biblical repentance is brought about by godly sorrow; godly sorrow is a recognition of certain dispositions. These dispositions are from the holy spirit and basic knowledge about certain things of God, else they would not be dispositions. And if they were not dispositions, how could men rightly repent? They would be repenting of nothing.
Luke 18:3, Matt 27:54
3) I've mentioned the ordo salutis and that since there are components, it is quite logical that the components can occur seperately. Rom 8:29
I mentioned John the Baptist. John was
*regenerated in the womb. Without hearing the word, it would be contra-biblical to assume John was
*converted while in the womb. He lived to a ripe age, as he grew and sat under the word of God, it was then that he was
converted.
* Regeneration is not Conversion/Conversion is not regeneration
John 3:3 shows that God regenerates and
then men can see the kingdom and things thereof........
I previously asked:
Do you then believe that John the baptist was converted without hearing the word?
Well, I guess I would say he was converted without grasping total depravity, unconditional election, limited atonement, irresistible grace, and perseverance of the saints. I would see a difference between a missiological setting, Romans 10, and covenantal succession, John's setting.
You response in erred here:
Without acknowledging the ordo above, your conclussion is skewed. The fact that men
must hear the word in order to be
converted, which is supported by Rom 10:17, 8:29 and the ordo salutis, shows that John was regenerated in the womb, not converted. He was converted later after hearing the word (as described in Jesus' parable of the soils; "He that
understandeth the word...." and Rom 10:17) So, you are correct in saying that John did not have the understanding at that time. He did however later, to some capacity.
You add:
Yes, but that doesn't give me tons to go on with respect to how much time occurs between one and the other, etc. So, yes, Romans suggests a basic ordo, but I'm basically agnostic, not willing to say too much.
You don't need to have 'tons to go on'. All you need to know is that there are segments. Segments represent time. Time has seperation. Hence, conversion is seperated from regeneration. Here I will quote you from earlier in the thread:
In regards to your faith comments, I will take God at His Word. I'm not left with endless speculation whether or not he has grasped me, etc., but know Him via covenant. He tells me to believe and promises anyone who believes will be saved. So I simply believe.
4) Whether or not, Hodge agree's, Rome is hgeretical; they are possibly the whore of Babylon. Please refer to their cathechism for validation. They do not believe in the same gospel of the orthodox body of Christ; hence, they are anathema.
[Edited on 11-4-2004 by Scott Bushey]