I suppose I should be used to this by now! Easter is
not a pagan celebration. There is a maxim that goes, “The misuse of a thing does not invalidate its proper use.”
Andrew, I notice in the link you provided in the OP, it alleged the use of “Easter” in the NT (Acts 12:4) is a mistranslation. That’s the first thing I’d like to address. This bush has been gone around before here at PB, though perhaps it’s time to refresh people’s minds. For me it all started a few years back after hearing Dr. Matthew McMahon’s podcast,
Easter: The Devil’s Holiday, with his use of Alexander Hislop’s book,
The Two Babylons; Or The Papal Worship: Proved To Be The Worship Of Nimrod and His Wife (Lorizeaux Brothers, 1990), to support his thesis, and at that time I wanted to study a little and write on this. I also had avoided the whole Easter celebration mostly on this basis. I would tell people, “I don’t celebrate Ishtar.”
I note that the author of the article you linked, Andrew, also references Hislop and his work. To which I respond: First of all, Ralph Woodrow, who wrote,
Babylon Mystery Religion, influenced deeply by Hislop’s book, later retracted his view (and pulled his book off the market) after realizing Hislop badly erred. He then wrote a review,
“The Two Babylons: A Case Study in Poor Methodology”, in
Christian Research Journal, 1999 Volume: 22 Number: 2. I have both of these works in my library, but I no longer use either due to their flaws. Anyone using them to promote arguments against Easter are automatically suspect in my view.
It should be needless to say, the pagan fertility symbols of eggs and rabbits
are carry-overs from ancient fertility rites and
do represent corruption in the church, if they be brought into the church. But this has nothing to do with pure Easter. I do not like ungodly accretions to the Gospel and to the biblical Faith, be they rabbinic or pagan; as a poet and word-smith I like language that is spare and potent, and keep a sharp eye on linguistic corruptions in my native tongue (English); on neither count am I offended by the word Easter.
Will Kinney has written an article,
“Is the word ‘Easter’ an error in the King James Bible?”, which I think speaks well into the issue of the textual choice of the translators in Acts 12:4. I won’t post the article here for the sake of space, but it is most germane to the defense of the translation of the Greek
pascha as Easter. Those who want to be “up to speed” in this discussion should read it.
The King James is accurate as it uses the word “Passover”
before the death and resurrection of Christ and then “Easter” the only time the word occurs in the book of Acts
after His resurrection.
There is an English / Anglo-Saxon usage of the word “Easter” pre-dating the King James (and Tyndale), and an etymological derivation from the German “Oster”. Until Tyndale, though, the English held in common with the European tongues (excepting German) the use of the transliterated
pascha for both the Jewish Passover and the post-resurrection celebration and its transformed Passover meal / Lord’s Supper. Tyndale differentiated between the two with linguistic brilliance, which was followed by the King James Bible.
For an enjoyable tour of the original usage of this word – and the coining by Tyndale of the word “Passover” as well – see Nick Sayers’ article,
Why we should not Passover Easter. Sayers explains why it is theologically and Scripturally correct to differentiate between Passover and Easter.
I will add some more from collected info on this matter for those who like to delve deeply into semantic matters:
The Indo-European roots of our languages have the prefix
aus-, which means
to shine, important derivatives of which are the words east, Easter, aurora. It has the idea, “the direction of the sunrise.” The Old High German
ostan – east – derives from this root. That the dawn-goddess
Eastre or
Oestar derives from the same root does not mean they are the same word with the same meaning. The Indo-European
ausos- refers to the dawn, and also to the Indo-European goddess of the dawn. [Taken from
The American Heritage Dictionary of the English Language 3[SUP]rd[/SUP] Ed, the section, “Indo-European Roots”, p. 2095.]
Greek philosophers gave the word
logos certain meanings, while the apostle John imbued it with an entirely different (though related) significance. Because Easter has etymological roots in common with a dawn goddess, does not negate its own peculiar etymology and associations, among which are east, shining, rising, resurrection, as noted below.
The English word Easter is of German/Saxon origin and not Babylonian as Alexander Hislop falsely claimed. The German equivalent is Oster. Oster (Ostern being the modern day equivalent) is related to Ost which means the rising of the sun, or simply in English, east. Oster comes from the old Teutonic form of auferstehen / auferstehung, which means resurrection, which in the older Teutonic form comes from two words, Ester meaning first, and stehen meaning to stand. These two words combine to form erstehen which is an old German form of auferstehen, the modern day German word for resurrection.
In English etymology the word Ester coming from the German Oster, morphed into the modern day term Easter. Similarily in German the word Oster in Luther’s Day has now become Ostern, which are the same words but with different spelling. Tyndale with his expertise in the German language knew of the Ester - Oster association. Luther obviously considered Oster as both a synonym for the Jewish Passover and a phrase used for the resurrection of Christ. In Luther’s German New Testament we find Ostern, Osterlamm, Osterfest, Fest, and only once das Passa (Heb. 11.28). In His Old Testament he used the German word Passaopffer, Osterfest, Ostern, and Osterlamm once each.
In Exodus 12.11 Luther rendered Passah with a marginal note referring to the 'Osterlamm'. Even in contemporary German the phrase "das jüdische Osterfest" (the Jewish Passover) demonstrates that the German Oster can mean both the Jewish and Christian festivals. In fact the meaning of the German word Ostern is today just as the English word Easter was until the KJV translators skillfully put it in it’s correct semantic range, thus separating forever the Old Easter and the New Easter. After 1611 the Old Testament Easter became Passover, a trend Tyndale had begun to accomplish. –excerpted from Nick Sayers article linked to above
C. F. Cruse remarked, "Our word
EASTER is of Saxon origin and of precisely the same import with its German cognate
OSTERN. The latter is derived from the old Teutonic form of auferstehen / auferstehung, that is -
RESURRECTION." (
Eusebius' Ecclesiastical History, Translated by C. F. Cruse, Hendrickson Publishers, p 437)
Most likely I won’t convince those whose see an Ishtar / Oestar goddess connection with the word Easter (and there
is an etymologic but not a meaning-equivalent connection with the Germanic Oestar) – I am in great measure posting this for the sake of those who hold to the King James Bible, to confirm them in the warranted confidence they hold in that holy Book. For – ultimately – I think the Easter question does hinge on its valid Biblical use, and I have labored here to show that its use in Acts 12:4 is indeed valid.
A thought: were Luther, with his thorough knowledge of German, and Tyndale with not only his knowledge of German and genius for English, but highly accomplished in many languages, ignorant in that they would either not know of or purposely insert / accept a pagan goddess festival as a word for the resurrection of our Lord?
In sum: I hope this is sufficient to show that the appearance of the word Easter in our Bible, and its proper use in referring to the resurrection of our Lord, has adequate warrant.