Ploutos
Puritan Board Graduate
In a recent thread, some of us discussed the idea that Isaiah 14 and Ezekiel 28 have an additional layer of meaning beyond the literal historical references to Babylon and Tyre. My Bible reading for the day brought me to Luke 10, where I have a note written in the margins to refer to Is. 14:12 at vs. 18.
I took out my Carson & Beale for this one and they have the following to say:
I'm perfectly happy to set the Ezekiel passage aside for the time being, and just to address the Isaiah passage. I don't feel a need to attribute much interpretive weight to an obscure Jewish apocryphal work except insofar that it shows that the idea was not original or exclusive to Tertullian. What I am interested in is the very existence of the reference. It does seem to be a fairly clear allusion to the Isaiah passage, and would seem to lend credence to the idea that Isaiah 14 can be viewed as referring to Satan's fall.
I would offer two additional points in support of the idea: first, that there are further parallels to this language in Revelation 8 and 9 (indeed, Carson and Beale, suggest the possibility that Rev. 8:10 is another allusion to Isa. 14:12-15). Second, we recently finished going through the book of Jeremiah in our family devotions. A key part of my application for Jeremiah 50-51 that Babylon is representative of all spiritual and earthly forces that are opposed to the Lord. I want to note here that my daily routine does not allow extensive prep time for our family devotions; I will occasionally consult Henry, Calvin, or some of my study Bibles, but most of the time I just quickly go over the day's passage and plan out one or two points without much in the way of external aids. Still, while desiring not to put too much weight on my own semi-off-the-cuff reading of Jeremiah, it seems a reasonable and fitting interpretation: if one is to take the message to Israel as being universally addressed to all of God's children, then the converse of that would be to interpret Babylon as generally standing for more than the literal earthly neo-Babylonian entity.
So it seems that this reading of Isaiah is not just some aberrant allegorical take from Tertullian or from the obscure depths of Jewish tradition but rather something that can be traced as part of a Biblical pattern also found in places such as Jeremiah, the gospels, and Revelation.
@iainduguid - I would be particularly interested in your response, if you are willing to weigh in yet again.
I took out my Carson & Beale for this one and they have the following to say:
(L.A.E. is noted as the pseudepigraphical work "Life of Adam and Eve".)10:15
The evocation of OT symbols of judgment and destruction continue with this verse, which contains an allusion to Isa. 14:13-15 in the prophetic oracle against Babylon: "You said in your heart, 'I will ascend to heaven; I will raise my throne above the stars of God... I will ascend to the tops of the clouds, I will make myself like the Most High.' But you are brought down to SHeol, to the depths of the pit." <<snip>>
10:18
As does 10:15, the description of the fall of Satan draws on Isa. 14. The phrase ek tou ouranou pesonta ("fall from heaven") in particular echoes exepesen ex tou ouranou ("has fallen from heaven" in Isa. 14:12. The application of this verse to the fall of Satan in this context is particularly appropriate. First, Isa. 14:12 seems to have used ancient Near Eastern mythic language in portraying the downfall of Babylon (Marx 2000), and Jesus' use of similar language (assuming that Jesus is the subject of the verb etheōroun, "I/they saw" [see Hills 1992]) to apply to Satan my recall the background behind Isaiah's language. Second, Jewish interpretive traditions also apply Isa. 14:12 to the fall of Satan/Lucifer (2 En. 29:3; L.A.E 12:1). <<snip>>
I'm perfectly happy to set the Ezekiel passage aside for the time being, and just to address the Isaiah passage. I don't feel a need to attribute much interpretive weight to an obscure Jewish apocryphal work except insofar that it shows that the idea was not original or exclusive to Tertullian. What I am interested in is the very existence of the reference. It does seem to be a fairly clear allusion to the Isaiah passage, and would seem to lend credence to the idea that Isaiah 14 can be viewed as referring to Satan's fall.
I would offer two additional points in support of the idea: first, that there are further parallels to this language in Revelation 8 and 9 (indeed, Carson and Beale, suggest the possibility that Rev. 8:10 is another allusion to Isa. 14:12-15). Second, we recently finished going through the book of Jeremiah in our family devotions. A key part of my application for Jeremiah 50-51 that Babylon is representative of all spiritual and earthly forces that are opposed to the Lord. I want to note here that my daily routine does not allow extensive prep time for our family devotions; I will occasionally consult Henry, Calvin, or some of my study Bibles, but most of the time I just quickly go over the day's passage and plan out one or two points without much in the way of external aids. Still, while desiring not to put too much weight on my own semi-off-the-cuff reading of Jeremiah, it seems a reasonable and fitting interpretation: if one is to take the message to Israel as being universally addressed to all of God's children, then the converse of that would be to interpret Babylon as generally standing for more than the literal earthly neo-Babylonian entity.
So it seems that this reading of Isaiah is not just some aberrant allegorical take from Tertullian or from the obscure depths of Jewish tradition but rather something that can be traced as part of a Biblical pattern also found in places such as Jeremiah, the gospels, and Revelation.
@iainduguid - I would be particularly interested in your response, if you are willing to weigh in yet again.