passingpilgrim
Puritan Board Freshman
Hi everyone,
Can someone help me with this passage? I am studying Isaiah 53 and see in verse 6 where it reads the Lord has laid on Him the iniquity of us all. Is this verse speaking of mankind in general or did the Lord just lay on Christ the iniquity of the elect?
I ask because I see in verse 12 where it reads "he (Christ) bore the sin of many", implying not all, but some.
Is that the same implication for verse 6?
thanks...
Can someone help me with this passage? I am studying Isaiah 53 and see in verse 6 where it reads the Lord has laid on Him the iniquity of us all. Is this verse speaking of mankind in general or did the Lord just lay on Christ the iniquity of the elect?
I ask because I see in verse 12 where it reads "he (Christ) bore the sin of many", implying not all, but some.
Is that the same implication for verse 6?
thanks...