Charles.Sullivan
Puritan Board Freshman
I have a Roman Catholic coworker who occasionally likes to engage in some theological discussion. I usually aim to be as ecumenical as possible, but the other day he brought up John 6:51-58 as clearly proving the Romanist view of Transubstantiation. I managed to hold my own and he admitted that he had never heard a good explanation from any protestant on this passage before. I will paraphrase the explanation of the passage that I gave him below, and I would appreciate any insights.
First, I explained the importance of always reading the full context of any verse, in this case that means backing up all the way to verse 22. When we start there and then carefully read forward, there are a number of verses that stand out to me which help us understand verses 51-58 more clearly. Those verse are:
I base this upon verses 28-29 setting up belief in Christ as the theme of the discussion, then verse 35 connecting coming and believing with eating and drinking, then every use of the vastly important phrases having eternal life and being raised up on the last day in verses 39, 40, 44, and 47 being connected with our belief in Jesus and being drawn by the Father.
Next, I explained the importance of considering the original audience when we are interpreting Scripture. I mentioned that Peter had no issue saying "no" to God when He told him to kill and eat an unclean animal in Acts 10:14, but we see no such hesitation from Peter here in John 6 when Jesus mentions eating human flesh and drinking blood, probably because he understood that Jesus was not intending for us to literally eat his flesh and blood, but was instead being symbolic.
I also mentioned that the Lord's Supper did not spring up out of nothing, it was instituted during an existing Old Testament sacrament, the Passover meal. In the Jewish context, Passover is steeped in symbolism, so it only makes sense that the New Testament sacrament of the Lord's Supper would be just as symbolic as the OT sacrament that it came out of.
First, I explained the importance of always reading the full context of any verse, in this case that means backing up all the way to verse 22. When we start there and then carefully read forward, there are a number of verses that stand out to me which help us understand verses 51-58 more clearly. Those verse are:
- vv. 28-29 Then they inquired, “What must we do to perform the works of God?” Jesus replied, “The work of God is this: to believe in the One He has sent.”
- vv. 35-36 Jesus answered, “I am the bread of life. Whoever comes to Me will never hunger, and whoever believes in Me will never thirst. But as I stated, you have seen Me and still you do not believe."
- vv. 39-40 "And this is the will of Him who sent Me, that I shall lose none of those He has given Me, but raise them up at the last day. For it is My Father’s will that everyone who looks to the Son and believes in Him shall have eternal life, and I will raise him up at the last day.”
- v. 44 “No one can come to Me unless the Father who sent Me draws him, and I will raise him up at the last day."
- v. 47 "Truly, truly, I tell you, he who believes has eternal life."
- v. 54 "Whoever eats My flesh and drinks My blood has eternal life, and I will raise him up at the last day."
I base this upon verses 28-29 setting up belief in Christ as the theme of the discussion, then verse 35 connecting coming and believing with eating and drinking, then every use of the vastly important phrases having eternal life and being raised up on the last day in verses 39, 40, 44, and 47 being connected with our belief in Jesus and being drawn by the Father.
Next, I explained the importance of considering the original audience when we are interpreting Scripture. I mentioned that Peter had no issue saying "no" to God when He told him to kill and eat an unclean animal in Acts 10:14, but we see no such hesitation from Peter here in John 6 when Jesus mentions eating human flesh and drinking blood, probably because he understood that Jesus was not intending for us to literally eat his flesh and blood, but was instead being symbolic.
I also mentioned that the Lord's Supper did not spring up out of nothing, it was instituted during an existing Old Testament sacrament, the Passover meal. In the Jewish context, Passover is steeped in symbolism, so it only makes sense that the New Testament sacrament of the Lord's Supper would be just as symbolic as the OT sacrament that it came out of.