Judges 6:33

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Notthemama1984

Puritan Board Post-Graduate
Is it proper to see the gathering of the Midianites and Amalekites as a response to Gideon's destruction of the altar of Baal or no?
 
In my opinion, no, the enemies of Israel in this story are already on the move against God's people as the opening vv of the ch reveal. Gideon's actions are for getting the attention of the holy nation, for calling them away from their idol-fancies.

In the immediate prior context, God directed Gideon to destroy the altar of Baal, desecrate it, and make a different altar unto the LORD. It was “his father's altar,” because the village was his father's, as the head of it. The wood of the accompanying Asherah-pole was to be the fuel for this altar. The men of the town awoke to the sight of a very different worship setup than what they had the day before. And, despite any prior uncertainty per the outcome, Gideon's father allowed it, hence divine providence was proved for Gideon's sake. And a new name was given Gideon because of the incident.

v33 brings the readers back into the flow of the larger conflict. The enemy assaults have not slackened all by themselves, these ongoing visitations which are signs of the power of the Enemy, and the permission of the LORD because of his rebellious, faithless church. But the destroyed altar portends the failure of such gods as that altar respected; and portends the destruction of the physical enemy which exists in the story for a sign of Israel's spiritual oppression.
 
I appreciate the response. My reading today made me think it was possible that the army was amassing in response (hence why I asked here), but the more I chewed on the passage the more I leaned towards what you said. I am grateful you took the time to walk me through the question as you saw it.
 
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