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Originally posted by The Lamb
R Scott:
If someone could please give me NEW TESTAMENT example of this, I would be satified. Please point me to where Christ exercised the Law, then preached Grace.
In all of His encounters, I cannot find any teaching from The Lord in this "systematic".
Originally posted by crhoades
Originally posted by The Lamb
R Scott:
If someone could please give me NEW TESTAMENT example of this, I would be satified. Please point me to where Christ exercised the Law, then preached Grace.
In all of His encounters, I cannot find any teaching from The Lord in this "systematic".
Off the top of my head...what about the rich young ruler?
Originally posted by The Lamb
Originally posted by crhoades
Originally posted by The Lamb
R Scott:
If someone could please give me NEW TESTAMENT example of this, I would be satified. Please point me to where Christ exercised the Law, then preached Grace.
In all of His encounters, I cannot find any teaching from The Lord in this "systematic".
Off the top of my head...what about the rich young ruler?
THe case of the RYR was to show the man how shallow his understanding was. The point I am making is this brother.
The Law does not point us to Christ, the Holy Spirit does. If what some are saying is true, that the Law converts us, the RYR is one example against this idea. For when presented with the Law, the RYR was happy thinking he kept it. Absolutely no conviction, but once Christ pointed to Himself, he went away sad.
Originally posted by crhoades
Originally posted by The Lamb
R Scott:
If someone could please give me NEW TESTAMENT example of this, I would be satified. Please point me to where Christ exercised the Law, then preached Grace.
In all of His encounters, I cannot find any teaching from The Lord in this "systematic".
Off the top of my head...what about the rich young ruler?
Originally posted by Texas Aggie
Joseph,
My bad, let me clarify.... "The law of the Lord is perfect, converting the soul..." Psalm 19:7. This can also mean restoring the soul.
Under the New Covenant, we are given the law (written in our hearts), resurrected life and the Holy Spirit. These are the three things I mentioned in an earlier reply concerning the items found in the Ark of the Covenant. I believe these are connected (visible/invisible). All three have a part in converting the soul, salvation, eternal life, so on.
As far as a New Testament example, I see law and grace going hand in hand. Both are integral to His kingdom. Jesus saves the adulteress from being stoned in John Ch. 8 (mercy & grace). He then tells her to sin no more in verse 11 (law). Anyway, just my thoughts. Cheers.
Originally posted by fredtgreco
Originally posted by crhoades
Originally posted by The Lamb
R Scott:
If someone could please give me NEW TESTAMENT example of this, I would be satified. Please point me to where Christ exercised the Law, then preached Grace.
In all of His encounters, I cannot find any teaching from The Lord in this "systematic".
Off the top of my head...what about the rich young ruler?
With Saul/Paul.
Originally posted by crhoades
Originally posted by The Lamb
Originally posted by crhoades
Originally posted by The Lamb
R Scott:
If someone could please give me NEW TESTAMENT example of this, I would be satified. Please point me to where Christ exercised the Law, then preached Grace.
In all of His encounters, I cannot find any teaching from The Lord in this "systematic".
Off the top of my head...what about the rich young ruler?
THe case of the RYR was to show the man how shallow his understanding was. The point I am making is this brother.
The Law does not point us to Christ, the Holy Spirit does. If what some are saying is true, that the Law converts us, the RYR is one example against this idea. For when presented with the Law, the RYR was happy thinking he kept it. Absolutely no conviction, but once Christ pointed to Himself, he went away sad.
Doesn't the Spirit work through the Word as opposed to without it? Can the Holy Spirit not work through the Law to convict and convert? I'm not wanting to separate Law from Gospel or Law from the Spirit either. With the RYR, God Sovereignly chose not to convert him. The law also can harden can't it?
that we are justified through the instrument of faith alone given by grace, that faith is not alone but brings with it works prepared in advance for us to do, and that there will be a final judgment according to works.
Originally posted by The Lamb
Originally posted by fredtgreco
Originally posted by crhoades
Originally posted by The Lamb
R Scott:
If someone could please give me NEW TESTAMENT example of this, I would be satified. Please point me to where Christ exercised the Law, then preached Grace.
In all of His encounters, I cannot find any teaching from The Lord in this "systematic".
Off the top of my head...what about the rich young ruler?
With Saul/Paul.
Where was the law Preached Fred? Where did Christ reveal the stone tablets to Paul on the road to damascus? Paul knew the Law inside and Out and that did nto convict him. The power of God convicted hoim and restored him
Originally posted by fredtgreco
Originally posted by The Lamb
Originally posted by fredtgreco
Originally posted by crhoades
Originally posted by The Lamb
R Scott:
If someone could please give me NEW TESTAMENT example of this, I would be satified. Please point me to where Christ exercised the Law, then preached Grace.
In all of His encounters, I cannot find any teaching from The Lord in this "systematic".
Off the top of my head...what about the rich young ruler?
With Saul/Paul.
Where was the law Preached Fred? Where did Christ reveal the stone tablets to Paul on the road to damascus? Paul knew the Law inside and Out and that did nto convict him. The power of God convicted hoim and restored him
Conviction presupposes the knowledge of sin.
Paul states unequivocally that the knowledge of sin comes from the law:
"I would not have come to know sin except through the Law; for I would not have known about coveting if the Law had not said, "YOU SHALL NOT COVET." (Rom. 7:7)
Without the law, there is no knowledge of sin; without a knowledge of sin, there is no need for redemption; without the need for redemption; there is no coming to Christ.
There is no dichotomy between the law and the Spirit - the Spirit convicts (John 16:8) and the instrument he uses for that is the law.
That is why when Christ meets Saul, he begins not with Saul's need, or with a message of grace, but with "Saul, Saul, why do you persecute me?"
Originally posted by kceaster
Thanks for answering my question, and I hope it will become clear why I asked that.
For one, you claim it is only the Holy Spirit convicting. How exactly does He do that? Does He whisper in our ears of our need for a savior? Musn't He first convince us of our sin and misery? How do we know we are miserable and poluted sinners?
Now, you must answer the question about how the Spirit convicts us normally. Does He use means? If He does, what are those means. How does He speak to us apart from the whole counsel of God?
As for an example of Christ's teaching, we can imply that His interaction with the woman at the well as a fine example. Why did He ask her to go and get her husband? Don't you think she immediately was reminded of the marriage laws when Christ spoke to her? She perceives He is a prophet. What was the message of the prophets? Turn from sin, and obey the Lord.
Part of your confusion stems from the fact that you are looking for something you're not likely to find. You want a normative preaching of the law in the NT, when that sort of preaching was, by and large, unnecessary. Most of the time, the apostles are preaching to people who were already familiar with the laws of the Jews.
Explain why Paul starts in Romans 1:18 with a clear exposition of the condition of man before a Holy God. Do you think law is nowhere to be found here in his preaching?
I think it would benefit you to understand what common presuppostion men come to the God of the Bible. In their heart of hearts, they know they stand condemned, but their presupposition is that they will be pardoned because God is a God of grace. After all, they are not so bad. This is where the law thunders back how unrighteous man really is, how far short he falls. How do I prove this presuppostion? There is a way that seemeth right to a man, but the way therein is death.
You need to realize that when the Holy Spirit convicts, He does so intelligently. It is not some mystical thing. He uses reason and logic. And, He doesn't speak anything of Himself, but of God and His Son, Jesus Christ.
So, I believe that the law is to be preached. It is not an alternate way of salvation. It is not legalism that we're speaking of. It is a balance between what man is to believe concerning God and the duty which God requires of man.
In Christ,
KC
I know what you're saying and I can sympathize, but I think it is a false dichotomy. There has to be balance, and I think if you truly understood the Puritans, you would see that they struck that balance. It does not seem so in our times because there are so few who can sit under this type of preaching. But Lord willing, let us go on to perfection so that we can eat of this luxurious fare.
In Christ,
KC
Originally posted by smallbeans
Wayne - yes, this in chapter CHAPTER XXXIII of the Westminster Confession where the judgment is based on thoughts, words, deeds. It is also covered in pp 728-734 in Berkhof and he goes into what the judgment is and what it isn't pretty clearly.
Originally posted by smallbeans
Joseph - it still sounds like you are dividing grace and law as to almost make them rivals. There is a gracious way of preaching the law and there are legalistic ways of preaching the law. I guess our ideal is that gracious exhortation and preaching of the law.
Originally posted by The Lamb
THe Law preached without the remedy is just as bad as anythign else from the pulpit.
Of course the Law must be preached, but to what extent and for what reason is my concern. The unregenerate are not convicted by it alone and it brings no power unto salvation like the Gospel.