Matthew Henry writes on Leviticus 25:
Bonar seems to be coming from a much stronger disposition toward slavery, but ends up saying much the same:
Is Henry right that the theoretical allowance for slavery was for all ages?
Is he right that the law against holding him as a bonservant (Leviticus 25:39 KJV), e.g not to lay on him "servile service" as Young's Literal Translation has it, was only about Israelites? It seems like a weird position to me.
Also, which one is right? Is Bonar right in limiting this strictly to slavery if there us a divine appointment? Is Henry right in applying it to his day? Or is a mediating position wheteby slavery was theoretically lawful but not in the form it often took in their day? Or is Bonar too harsh on slaveowners, is perpetual slavery always wrong, even in Leviticus 25? Or is Henry too mild somehow (I cannot fathom how)?
How come none of these two as much as mention race?
And now for the church-historical question: How common were these diffrent views between the beginning of "Negroe" slavery and abolition? Which great names held which views?
And how do we reckon with otherwise great people who may have held views we find unacceptably mild on slaveowners?
Leviticus 25:40-46 —
But as an hired servant, and as a sojourner, he shall be with thee, and shall serve thee unto the year of jubile:
And then shall he depart from thee, both he and his children with him, and shall return unto his own family, and unto the possession of his fathers shall he return.
For they are my servants, which I brought forth out of the land of Egypt: they shall not be sold as bondmen.
Thou shalt not rule over him with rigour; but shalt fear thy God.
Both thy bondmen, and thy bondmaids, which thou shalt have, shall be of the heathen that are round about you; of them shall ye buy bondmen and bondmaids.
Moreover of the children of the strangers that do sojourn among you, of them shall ye buy, and of their families that are with you, which they begat in your land: and they shall be your possession.
And ye shall take them as an inheritance for your children after you, to inherit them for a possession; they shall be your bondmen for ever: but over your brethren the children of Israel, ye shall not rule one over another with rigour.
That they might purchase bondmen of the heathen nations that were round about them, or of those strangers that sojourned among them (except of those seven nations that were to be destroyed); and might claim a dominion over them, and entail them upon their families as an inheritance, for the year of jubilee should give no discharge to them, v. 44, 46. Thus in our English plantations the negroes only are used as slaves; how much to the credit of Christianity I shall not say. Now, 1. This authority which they had over the bondmen whom they purchased from the neighbouring nations was in pursuance of the blessing of Jacob, Gen. 27:29, Let people serve thee. 2. It prefigured the bringing in of the Gentiles to the service of Christ and his church. Ask of me, and I will give thee the heathen for thy inheritance, Ps. 2:8. And it is promised (Isa. 61:5), Strangers shall stand and feed your flocks, and the sons of the alien shall be your vine-dressers; see Rev. 2:26, 27. The upright shall have the dominion in the morning, Ps. 49:14. 3. It intimates that none shall have the benefit of the gospel jubilee but those only that are Israelites indeed, and the children of Abraham by faith: as for those that continue heathenish, they continue bondmen. See this turned upon the unbelieving Jews themselves, Gal. 4:25, where Jerusalem, when she had rejected Christ, is said to be in bondage with her children. Let me only add here that, though they are not forbidden to rule their bondmen with rigour, yet the Jewish doctors say, "It is the property of mercy, and way of wisdom, that a man should be compassionate, and not make his yoke heavy upon any servant that he has."
Bonar seems to be coming from a much stronger disposition toward slavery, but ends up saying much the same:
Once more: an Israelite may have slaves and bondmaids from the Heathen, and these he may retain as slaves forever. In this there lies a type. It is not that Moses, or the Lord speaking by Moses, sanctions slavery. He gives no right to one man over another's person, except where there is sin and crime to be punished, as in the case of criminals. But here, the Lord wished to punish the Canaanites and other Heathen nations, because of their Heathenism; and of course the Lord has a right so to do. His decree, therefore, is this: that Heathens shall be exposed to bondage, and Israel shall take them as their slaves. Slavery here is evidently altogether another thing from modern slavery; for—1. It proceeds on the Lord's permission and command. 2. It is the consequence of sin in the enslaved. And while it is a penalty paid by rebellious ones, who cleaved to idols, it exhibits in type the future exaltation of the sons of God in the time of the Jubilee of earth. It shows "the liberty of the sons of God" (Rom. 8:21), and their dominion. Israel, in those days, shall have "strangers to feed their flocks, and sons of the aliens to be their ploughmen and vine-dressers" (Isa. 61:5); and the risen, glorified saints shall "execute vengeance on the Heathen, and punishments upon the people" (Ps. 149:7); and all men shall know that the Lord has loved them, when "they have power over the nations." (Rev. 2:26.)
Is Henry right that the theoretical allowance for slavery was for all ages?
Is he right that the law against holding him as a bonservant (Leviticus 25:39 KJV), e.g not to lay on him "servile service" as Young's Literal Translation has it, was only about Israelites? It seems like a weird position to me.
Also, which one is right? Is Bonar right in limiting this strictly to slavery if there us a divine appointment? Is Henry right in applying it to his day? Or is a mediating position wheteby slavery was theoretically lawful but not in the form it often took in their day? Or is Bonar too harsh on slaveowners, is perpetual slavery always wrong, even in Leviticus 25? Or is Henry too mild somehow (I cannot fathom how)?
How come none of these two as much as mention race?
And now for the church-historical question: How common were these diffrent views between the beginning of "Negroe" slavery and abolition? Which great names held which views?
And how do we reckon with otherwise great people who may have held views we find unacceptably mild on slaveowners?
Leviticus 25:40-46 —
But as an hired servant, and as a sojourner, he shall be with thee, and shall serve thee unto the year of jubile:
And then shall he depart from thee, both he and his children with him, and shall return unto his own family, and unto the possession of his fathers shall he return.
For they are my servants, which I brought forth out of the land of Egypt: they shall not be sold as bondmen.
Thou shalt not rule over him with rigour; but shalt fear thy God.
Both thy bondmen, and thy bondmaids, which thou shalt have, shall be of the heathen that are round about you; of them shall ye buy bondmen and bondmaids.
Moreover of the children of the strangers that do sojourn among you, of them shall ye buy, and of their families that are with you, which they begat in your land: and they shall be your possession.
And ye shall take them as an inheritance for your children after you, to inherit them for a possession; they shall be your bondmen for ever: but over your brethren the children of Israel, ye shall not rule one over another with rigour.