Lord, is it I?

[christiana]

17 Now on the first day of the Feast of the Unleavened Bread the disciples came to Jesus, saying to Him, “Where do You want us to prepare for You to eat the Passover?”
18 And He said, “Go into the city to a certain man, and say to him, ‘The Teacher says, “My time is at hand; I will keep the Passover at your house with My disciples.”’”
19 So the disciples did as Jesus had directed them; and they prepared the Passover.
20 When evening had come, He sat down with the twelve. 21 Now as they were eating, He said, “Assuredly, I say to you, one of you will betray Me.”
22 And they were exceedingly sorrowful, and each of them began to say to Him, “Lord, is it I?”
23 He answered and said, “He who dipped his hand with Me in the dish will betray Me. 24 The Son of Man indeed goes just as it is written of Him, but woe to that man by whom the Son of Man is betrayed! It would have been good for that man if he had not been born.”
25 Then Judas, who was betraying Him, answered and said, “Rabbi, is it I?”He said to him, “You have said it.”

After reading the above passage from Matthew,NKJV, with the reply of Judas I immediately thought of the verse in 1 Cor 12 that says 'No one can call Jesus Lord without the Holy Spirit allow him'(paraphrase)

I went to Matthew Henry for further thoughts but he doesnt comment on that. I also noticed the other gospels do not phrase it in the same manner. It really impressed me that Judas did not nor could not call Him Lord as he was the betrayer. I thought it strange to not find more commentary on this and wondered if I am seeing it in the correct way. Can anyone add to or lessen my confusion?

 

[christiana]

Any and all comments would be welcome. Just looking for info and thoughts, not arguments.

 

[Zimon]

I would not interprete 1. Cor 12,3 that literally. Of course, no one can come to true faith in Christ without the Holy Spirit allowing it. But: Even an Atheist, Muslim or JW could simply say: "Jesus is Lord" without any deeper meaning, without actually believing it.
I think 1. Cor 12,3 should be read like "no one can confess/believe Jesus is Lord" rather than "call", I think this makes a lot more sense.

 

[JennyG]

I would not interprete 1. Cor 12,3 that literally. Of course, no one can come to true faith in Christ without the Holy Spirit allowing it. But: Even an Atheist, Muslim or JW could simply say: "Jesus is Lord" without any deeper meaning, without actually believing it.
I think 1. Cor 12,3 should be read like "no one can confess/believe Jesus is Lord" rather than "call", I think this makes a lot more sense.

I suppose that's right, but it's still quite striking (I never picked it up before). The more you look at God's word, the more you find in it, and you won't ever come to the bottom of it. That's the lesson I take from it!

 

[christiana]

Seems the longer I read scripture by Dr Horner's plan the more connections I see and am so very blessed by. I agree Simon that anyone could say the words, but without meaning, similar to the Arminians who say the prayer, walk the aisle. However, to call Him Lord with Him living in your soul is so very different and in the reading where the disciples said, 'Lord, is it I?' you can sense their pain in even considering such a thing!

Thanks Jenny, as I know you are being blessed in the same way I am, in having all the cross references pop up in mind, anchoring His words deep in your soul! Soli deo gloria!