Speaking technically, I do not understand a "sin" that cannot be shown to be out of conformity with the law of God.
We may have different ideas of what constitutes being "out of conformity with the law of God". For one thing, I think the burden of proof lies on us to show that we are in conformity, rather than the other way around.
Understanding the position of WCF theology as I do, I cannot say with Benjamin Keach (a real bulldog who growled frequently about the "idolatry of infant baptism" that Presbyterians held onto for they "could not sever ties with Rome completely"), I deny this.
This is instructive to me:
Keach had to reach in order to find a "sin" to lay a charge on our paedobaptist brothers. He had to insert a motive or intent in order to "prove idolatry" and I cannot for the life of me see any obvious or objectively applicable breaking of any of God's law - either on the part of a faithful and genuinely saved Presbyterian church service or a faithful and genuinely saved 1689 church service.
I don't think he had to reach. You asked for irrefutable Biblical proof that one or the other position would be a sinful one to hold. I don't know if you'll accept anything I put forward as irrefutable proof, but I'll give it my best shot.
WLC 104 - duties required in the first commandment:
1) Worshipping and glorying God by (among other things) being careful in all things to please him and sorrowful when in any thing he is offended.
1 Jn. 3:22 - "...because we keep his commandments, and do those things that are pleasing in his sight".
Psalm 119:136 - "Rivers of waters run down mine eyes, because they keep not thy law."
The paedobaptist believes that God desires us to administer the covenant sign of baptism to our children in keeping with an understanding of covenant theology that mandates the administration of this covenant sign solely on the basis of God's covenant promises to household units. The credobaptist believes otherwise. Do we believe that God is completely and totally indifferent here? I do not. I believe that one path is pleasing to God and the other is not. Were I to be convinced that I had been holding the wrong view all this time, I would be greatly sorrowful.
WLC 105 - sins forbidden in the first commandment:
1) The omission or neglect of anything due to him, required in this commandment:
Is. 43:23 - "Thou hast not brought me the small cattle of thy burnt-offerings, neither hast thou honoured me with thy sacrifices..."
Gen. 17:14 (my prooftext, not in WLC) - "And the uncircumcised man child whose flesh of his foreskin is not circumcised, that soul shall be cut off from his people; he hath broken my covenant."
Viewing baptism as the NT successor to circumcision per Colossians 2, I believe that we are commanded to baptise our children. To not do so is a sin.
2) Ignorance, forgetfulness... false opinions of him
Hos. 4:6 - "My people are destroyed for lack of knowledge."
Jer. 2:32 - "Yet my people have forgotten me days without number."
WLC 108 - duties required in the second commandment:
1) Receiving, observing, and keeping pure and entire, all such religious worship and ordinances...
Deut. 32:46 - "...set your hearts unto
all the words which I testify among you this day..."
Matt. 28:20 - "Teaching them to observe
all things whatsoever I have commanded you..."
1 Tim. 6:14 - "That thou keep this commandment without spot..."
2) The administration and receiving of the sacraments:
Matt. 28:19 - "Go ye therefore, and teach all nations, baptizing them..."
1 Cor. 11:23 - 30 - "For I have received of the Lord that which also I delivered unto you, That the Lord Jesus, the same night in which he was betrayed, took bread..."
Again, do we believe that in giving these commands, the Lord was indifferent as to the how? Does he look with equal regard upon the two conclusions people reach regarding the administration of the covenant sign to the infants of believing parents? If he does not look with equal regard, then he must view one conclusion with less than pleasure. The passages I am quoting clearly indicate, to my eye, the high expectations the Lord sets regarding the degree of faithfulness to his whole will for our lives - expectations, of course, which are far beyond our ability and can only be met through our union with Christ.
WLC 109 - sins forbidden in the second commandment:
1) All superstitious devices... adding to it, or taking from it... whether invented... or received by tradition
Col. 2:21-22: "Touch not, taste not, handle not... which all are to perish with the using."
It seems Keach might well have viewed the practice of infant baptism in this light, and if Keach and the credobaptists are right, this would be a fair criticism to level at paedobaptists.
2) All neglecting, contempt, hindering, and opposing the worship and ordinances which God hath appointed.
Likewise, this might apply to credobaptist attempts to prevent the administration of the covenant sign to infants.
WLC 113 - sins forbidden in the third commandment:
1) Misinterpreting, misapplying, or any way perverting the word, or any part of it, to profane jests, curious or unprofitable questions, vain janglings, or the maintaining of false doctrines; the maligning, scorning, reviling, or any wise opposing of God's truth, grace, and ways.
1 Tim. 1:4 - "Neither give heed to fables, and endless genealogies, which minister questions, rather than godly edifying which is in faith."
More than any other WLC question I have quoted so far, this question, and the Biblical proofs for it, seem to indicate that it is a sin to hold to incorrect doctrine. For this question I have refrained from giving the other prooftexts, both for brevity, but also because of reasons related to what I am about to say.
What I want to say is that while I am trying to answer what you have asked of me, I do want to register a protest at doing so. I do not enjoy this and I have not relished writing this post because I do not really find it fitting to have to go on and on and on at such great length to provide irrefutable Biblical evidence and whatever other exorbitantly high standards of proof you are putting on me to demonstrate that one side or the other of the baptism debate is in sin. The reason is that it's hard to argue this at length without unwittingly conveying something about the magnitude of the sin involved. Many of the prooftexts for question 113 in particular have to do with the rebellious and unbelieving Jews - hard-boiled God-hating sinners. I don't really want to have to drag out those verses for a debate on baptism because it fails to convey that I don't think this is a debate over an essential doctrine, I don't think this is a debate between "good" Christians and "bad" Christians, between orthodoxy or heterodoxy, between the devout and the lukewarm.
All I want to convey is this: simply that, as Rev. Winzer so eloquently put it (I wish I was half as articulate as he and so many of the others on this board), demerit before God is involved. The term for that is sin, and sin, per every serious Reformed theologian ever, goes beyond mere actions to embrace the core of who we are apart from Christ and what remains as part and parcel of our natural being in this life even after salvation. God expects us to keep all his holy law - period. He who breaks the law in one point is a breaker of all the law. He who breaks the law in a small point is a sinner worthy of damnation. But we don't necessarily have to
do anything definable or tangible. A.A. Hodge gives a great definition of sin as disposition and inclination to do what which goes against God's law. Sin emanates from the very core of our being as sweat or exhaled breath.
With regard to the topic of baptism being used as an example or poster-boy for this concept... Either God wants us to baptize our infant children or he doesn't. One side or the other is wrong, and one side or the other has failed to perfectly grasp and apply God's covenantal dealing with us. In so doing, one side or the other has failed to properly understand God. If this isn't sin, I don't know what is, though it be not a heinous sin! With Rev. Winzer, I would expect others on this board to be well ahead of me in grasping this central idea of Reformed theology's conception of sin. I'm happy to assume the role of the party in error as regards this doctrinal divide for the sake of discussion if it will smooth the path toward understanding what this does and doesn't mean - that doctrinal error may be properly spoken of as a lack of conformity to the law of God and thereby may be properly understood as sin, without conflating the presence of sin and the degree of sinfulness.
(No, this does not mean that they are both "true" because it is their sincere belief that makes both "true"; I am no postmodernist fool).
And if they're not both true, then one is false. And if one is false, then it is wrong in God's eyes.
I considered Nadab and Abihu and their death in Lev. 10. This seems inapplicable to me since they committed worship against specific commandments (Lev. 10:1). (see Matthew Henry for specifics on how and why a faithful exegesis of God's revealed Word would show to any who have eyes to see that what they are about to do is sin). This does not apply to either of us as I understand.
Nor does Uzzah.
Nor does Josiah.
Nor does anyone defiling specific principles of worship where the law of God can be specified as to which is being broken by the sin (intentionally or not has no bearing we all affirm).
If the Lord commands that baptism be tied to a profession of faith, then the principle is defiled when baptism is administered to an infant who can never understand in that moment or remember later on that the sacrament was applied to him, totally apart from any comprehension on his part. (I am happy to play devil's advocate!)
This is why I appealed to Peter as evidence for an erroneous belief with no indication anywhere that he is in sin from Scripture (Acts 10).
Peter was in error. By God's grace, he repented and caught on quickly. He was out of conformity with God's law. The fact that he thought he was in conformity doesn't change this. The term for being out of conformity with God's law is sin. His error was sinful.
But Peter did not reject the instruction and the call. He obeyed.
He repented quickly of his error, as did David when confronted about his sin with Bathsheba. Difference of degree: still sin.
So when you (or rather
@Ploutos) appeal to the definition of sin, it falls flat.
For there can be no specific law of God given that can be pointed to - one for the other. I mean I can appeal to the verses and interpretations thereof that
lead to my position and you can do likewise.
If I didn't believe there was a specific law of God that directs me to baptize my infant children, I wouldn't be paedobaptist.
We can and we all actually have with each other.
The lack of a specific connection that is so obvious and undeniable that it leads to the recursive loop so that no one necessarily feels convicted when the Scriptural basis for their belief on how to worship is challenged by another fully Scriptural belief that leads to a different conclusion (EP vs. non-EP falls into this category too).
Here is my new question based on this:
Does one suppose that there is a book out there / or a book that is "not out there but yet to be written" that will lay out the Biblical case point-by-point so powerfully that either one of our respective Covenant Theologies will be so objectively vindicated as Biblically truthful that all of those genuinely saved will not be able to deny any longer the one true Biblical covenant theology based on the specifics of the eternal law of God revealed in his holy Word?
It's certainly possible. It has happened with the doctrine of justification by faith. Earlier Christians could be forgiven for having a synergistic view of salvation (note that even this casual use of the term "forgiven" implies wrong doing) - there's less excuse now.
or
Does one suppose that obviously clinching book has already been written - the position already secured - and that is why their CT is true and the other is only growing in faith and holiness by God's grace covering the sin of their CT that one sees in the other? (This is certainly not me and I doubt it is anyone here)
Sometimes I imagine that if we lived in a different culture that valued collective agreement more than rugged individualism, we would have a great council - one to rival the historic ones - across nations and investigate how much a CT relies on necessarily derived truth from Scripture to experiment and test the hypothesis that there exists a document - not yet written - but whose seeds exist today - that proves how and why the other newly-discarded CT specifically breaks the law of God as revealed in His Word.
I am unsure that is possible (the document I mean. But I also happen to think the hypothetical "Great Council of CT" is a far-fetched possibility as well hahaha)
Prior to clicking send, I will confess my fear that this post will prove to be less than helpful and will only generate acrimony. I don't want to have to expound at great and tedious length the idea that if one position on baptism is right, the other is in error, and that error is sin in a very real sense of the word. I don't want to lose sight of Rev. Winzer's excellent pastoral treatment of the topic, something I don't seem to be able to match even when given his good example to go before me. "Sin" does not in this case equal heinous sin nor does it countervail the reality that I believe God will surely extend grace to those who come to the wrong conclusion after much prayer and careful study of Scripture - whether the wrong conclusion is about baptism or eschatology or ecclesiology or the appropriateness of integrating Thomist thought in a Reformed framework or about whether Clark was a Nestorian or VanTil a heterodox on the doctrine of God. It's just a reality that good Christians with good intent do things that are sinful and that fall under the Westminsterian (and biblical!) definition of sin. That these things are viewed by God as truly having some merit and goodness in them is due to his incredible grace to us and the way in which the Holy Spirit offers our prayers and thoughts up to Christ and then Christ, in his mediatorial office at the right hand of God, cleanses and purifies our actions, our doctrines, our thoughts and prayers and beliefs and deeds, so that when he presents them to his father they are worthy of being in his presence by virtue of being given to him "in Christ". But on our own... we fall short. If I say I don't feel a need to confess and repent my wrong views, it's because I don't believe we can possibly account for and adequately repent of every wrong view we hold. But then our entrance into heaven is not based on the completeness or worthiness of our repentance. It is Christ, not our apologies, that wipes away our sins completely once and for all.
I'll stop there for now and I pray that this post will accomplish something worthwhile.