Pope Francis dead

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I've never seen that conclusion arrived at as the result of an actual exegesis of 2 Thessalonians, 1 John, or Revelation. That's probably why this has become the standard exception to the LBC. It came from current events rather than from Scripture. As much as I love the reformers, I'm afraid they were not immune to newspaper eschatology.
I agree. While I abhor the office of the papacy, the idea of the Pope being the "vicar of Christ on earth", and may even go far as to say the papacy is of the spirit of antichrist (particularly in light of papal infalliability and Vatican I), I don't think the Pope is necessarily **the** Antichrist.
 
I've never seen that conclusion arrived at as the result of an actual exegesis of 2 Thessalonians, 1 John, or Revelation. That's probably why this has become the standard exception to the LBC. It came from current events rather than from Scripture. As much as I love the reformers, I'm afraid they were not immune to newspaper eschatology.

This is unfounded. It came from their exposition of Scripture, as the commentaries clearly demonstrate.
 
I've never seen that conclusion arrived at as the result of an actual exegesis of 2 Thessalonians, 1 John, or Revelation. That's probably why this has become the standard exception to the LBC. It came from current events rather than from Scripture. As much as I love the reformers, I'm afraid they were not immune to newspaper eschatology.

A minor point, but the Reformed doctrine of the Antichrist is located under ecclesiology rather than eschatology. As for exegesis, here is a recent article: https://gentlereformation.com/2025/04/21/westminsters-antichrist-defended/
 
I've never seen that conclusion arrived at as the result of an actual exegesis of 2 Thessalonians, 1 John, or Revelation. That's probably why this has become the standard exception to the LBC. It came from current events rather than from Scripture. As much as I love the reformers, I'm afraid they were not immune to newspaper eschatology.
I had a hard time to brush of the idea of the papal antichrist since I first heard the case, even back when I really wanted to be an a-millennial, particularly because of 2 Thessalonians and Revelation 17. It's not newspaper exegesis to recognize that there is such a remarkably close correspondence to a prophecy that cannot be said to have been fulfilled by any earlier events (unlike many of the OT prophecies about Israel that match the second temple period)
 
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A minor point, but the Reformed doctrine of the Antichrist is located under ecclesiology rather than eschatology. As for exegesis, here is a recent article: https://gentlereformation.com/2025/04/21/westminsters-antichrist-defended/
If I submitted that paper under the guise of "exegesis" of a particular text, I would fail.
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I had a hard time to brush of the idea of the papal antichrist since I first heard the case, even back when I really wanted to be an a-millennial, particularly because of 2 Thessalonians and Revelation 17. It's not newspaper exegesis to recognize that there is such a remarkably close correspondence to a prophecy that cannot be said to have been fulfilled by any earlier events (unlike many of the OT prophecies about Israel that match the second temple period)
Well there's your problem: the assumption that the prophecy cannot have been fulfilled by any earlier events, when the key texts themselves include an insistence that it will, in fact, be fulfilled within the lifetime of many of the initial readers. Exegesis requires looking at what a particular text actually says and what the author intended to communicate to his immediate readers.
 
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If I submitted that paper under the guise of "exegesis" of a particular text, I would fail.
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Well there's your problem: the assumption that the prophecy cannot have been fulfilled by any earlier events, when the key texts themselves include an insistence that it will, in fact, be fulfilled within the lifetime of many of the initial readers. Exegesis requires looking at what a particular text actually says and what the author intended to communicate to his immediate readers.
Who set himself up in the church as a god prior to the papacy?
When were Revelation 17-18 fulfilled by the 2nd century (if you want to insist on the whole being fulfilled in the lifetime of the hearers)?
Where did you get the idea of fulfilment of the texts in Thessalonians, Timothy and Revelation within the lifetime of the original audience? Where is that written?
 
The Truth of God Against Popery (1851) is exegetical enough. Candlish's lecture (p.549 of the PDF) deals with the WCF (& LBC) claim directly.

The more I learn, the more I become persuaded that the loss of this doctrine has been an immensely consequential and devastating blow to the protestant church. Our disdain for the chief usurper has softened. Ps. 139:21-22.
 
"The Lord Jesus Christ is the Head of the church, in whom, by the appointment of the Father, all power for the calling, institution, order or government of the church, is invested in a supreme and sovereign manner; neither can the Pope of Rome in any sense be head thereof, but is that antichrist, that man of sin, and son of perdition, that exalteth himself in the church against Christ, and all that is called God; whom the Lord shall destroy with the brightness of his coming."
-London Baptist Confession of Faith, 26.4 (see also: 25.6 in the WCF)

Our tradition confesses that the very concept of a pope is contrary to the mind of Christ. In fact, the pope presently takes for himself the titles of the Trinity: the father of all true Christians, the head of the Church, and the vicar of Christ. A pope who led Rome far enough towards truth that we could confess him as a brother and his institution as a church of Christ would no longer be recognizable as a pope, according to Rome's tradition.

I almost wonder if we ought rather to pray for a pope who is even "worse" than Francis (i.e., more globalist or "liberal" in his attitudes) in order to drive the tradcaths who left broad evangelicalism in search of truth and tradition back towards the pure gospel.

In any event, the best thing that we could ask of God for the next pope is his true conversion and public repentance.

"I say it without the least hesitation: whoever calls himself the universal bishop, or desires this title, is, by his pride, the precursor of Antichrist, because he thus attempts to raise himself above the others."
-St. Gregory the Great
I agree with your position. I would like to add that if people in the Protestant/Evangelical tuly understood the deep doctrinal divergences and implications between the Bible and the Vatican would be less inclined to pray that a born again pope would be elected and then lead the Vatican to the truth. We must pray for the conversion of Roman catholics as individuals, whether clergy or non clergy, the Roman edifice is not a structure which can be recovered nor salvaged. I learnt that from a RC priest, missionary in Asia, who encouraged his parishioners to attend a Presbyterian church in the evenings in line with some ecumenical views and was solemnly punished by his superiors for doing so. There is a kind of illusion that Franncis was a good and evangelical popel because he refused to live in the papal palace and did not want to be addressed as Pope. The late queen of England had, among her many titles, the one of Duke of Lancaster. You could address her as such, she could have asked to be addressed as such, however she would still have kept the other titles. You see Francis did not renounce any of his titles because if he did so he would not have been able to be the Pope. It was his prerogative as any monarch to be addressed with any of his titles, but he could not renounce to those titles which are the foundation of his office. I was taught Roman Ctaholic tehology by Fr Pino Puglisi who was beatified by Pope Francis in 2013 and made a saint. Brethren, pray for the conversion of Catholcis and Evangelicals wh are so ignorant of doctrine and church hsitory. I am not advocating hatred towards Catholics. No as I have many relatives still in that church, but wise conduct to win them to the truth. It is a slow process.
 
I agree with your position. I would like to add that if people in the Protestant/Evangelical tuly understood the deep doctrinal divergences and implications between the Bible and the Vatican would be less inclined to pray that a born again pope would be elected and then lead the Vatican to the truth. We must pray for the conversion of Roman catholics as individuals, whether clergy or non clergy, the Roman edifice is not a structure which can be recovered nor salvaged. I learnt that from a RC priest, missionary in Asia, who encouraged his parishioners to attend a Presbyterian church in the evenings in line with some ecumenical views and was solemnly punished by his superiors for doing so. There is a kind of illusion that Franncis was a good and evangelical popel because he refused to live in the papal palace and did not want to be addressed as Pope. The late queen of England had, among her many titles, the one of Duke of Lancaster. You could address her as such, she could have asked to be addressed as such, however she would still have kept the other titles. You see Francis did not renounce any of his titles because if he did so he would not have been able to be the Pope. It was his prerogative as any monarch to be addressed with any of his titles, but he could not renounce to those titles which are the foundation of his office. I was taught Roman Ctaholic tehology by Fr Pino Puglisi who was beatified by Pope Francis in 2013 and made a saint. Brethren, pray for the conversion of Catholcis and Evangelicals wh are so ignorant of doctrine and church hsitory. I am not advocating hatred towards Catholics. No as I have many relatives still in that church, but wise conduct to win them to the truth. It is a slow process.
Amen. The most unloving thing we can do for our Catholic neighbors is pretend they are all right with the Lord while they remain in a body that withholds His good news from them.
 
Who set himself up in the church as a god prior to the papacy?
When were Revelation 17-18 fulfilled by the 2nd century (if you want to insist on the whole being fulfilled in the lifetime of the hearers)?
Where did you get the idea of fulfilment of the texts in Thessalonians, Timothy and Revelation within the lifetime of the original audience? Where is that written?
Too many questions and two false assumptions. I'm off to ReformCon and won't be able to respond for several days. In the meantime, listen to the first episode of Greg Bahnsen's Sunday School series on Revelation--free on sermon audio. It's the main thing that persuaded me.
 
Well there's your problem: the assumption that the prophecy cannot have been fulfilled by any earlier events, when the key texts themselves include an insistence that it will, in fact, be fulfilled within the lifetime of many of the initial readers.

So basically you are still engaging in "newspaper eschatology," only you have transferred it to the first century. You are assuming that a fulfilment in apostolic times must exclusively and exhaustively be applied to a single manifestation.
 
In what sense was the Papacy that had been in existence for at least 10 centuries in the Reformers' day "current events," so that understanding the text as speaking of it is "newspaper eschatology"?

The Papacy has been around for the majority of the time since the Apostle's day, and in its present Antichristian form since around the early 7th century.

That's not at all the same as hyper-dispensationalists thinking every eclipse is a sign of the end times. There have been hundreds or thousands of eclipses, which are truly "current events," but there's just been one Papacy (although divided between Rome and Avignon at one point), spanning 15+ centuries and exercising her tyranny over billions of souls, including 95%+ of the Christian world for any number of centuries (Remember: the Eastern Orthodox were majority under muslim rule). If there is anything at all in world history that the Apostles would prophetically warn about, surely it's that.
 
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Who set himself up in the church as a god prior to the papacy?
Nero by means of his false prophet Vespasian. He did this after the Emperor Claudius who had been restraining him was taken out of the way.

By the way, he did this in the temple, not the church. Why did you change temple to church?
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So basically you are still engaging in "newspaper eschatology," only you have transferred it to the first century. You are assuming that a fulfilment in apostolic times must exclusively and exhaustively be applied to a single manifestation.
None of that makes any sense. Is it newspaper eschatology to observe that Daniel’s 70-weeks prophecy set a time frame within which the Messiah would come?
 
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Nero by means of his false prophet Vespasian. He did this after the Emperor Claudius who had been restraining him was taken out of the way.

By the way, he did this in the temple, not the church. Why did you change temple to church?
1 Cor. 3:15-16, "Know ye not that ye are the temple of God, and that the Spirit of God dwelleth in you? If any man defile the temple of God, him shall God destroy; for the temple of God is holy, which temple ye are."

Why would the goings on of the Jewish temple be of any spiritual significance to the New Testament church? The Church is the temple of God.
 
In what sense was the Papacy that had been in existence for at least 10 centuries in the Reformers' day "current events," so that understanding the text as speaking of it is "newspaper eschatology"?

The Papacy has been around for the majority of the time since the Apostle's day, and in its present Antichristian form since around the early 7th century.
As you observe, not only is an existing antichristian papacy not mentioned in the text. It did not even come into existence until 500+ years after the text was written. How then is it possible to exegete it directly from the text? Instead you have to impose it on the text from the outside. And I’m guessing it was much longer before anyone even attempted this. I’m fine if someone wants to present this as a “theory that fits the facts” as the dispensationalists do, but let’s at least admit the irregular hermeneutic in play.
 
By the way, he did this in the temple, not the church. Why did you change temple to church?
Because the Church is God's temple

Nero by means of his false prophet Vespasian. He did this after the Emperor Claudius who had been restraining him was taken out of the way.
Paul seems to suggest that the ones who fall away follow the man of sin, not that they fight and loose a disastrous war against him... who do you see as the falling away in verse 3? Because if it is the Jews, they were already falling away for a whole generation by the time Nero showed up.

And what makes Claudius the one who withholds the man of sin? What is the reason to think that?
Are you familiar with the line of argumentation out of Daniel 7 that makes the Roman Empire itself the one that withholds?
 
As you observe, not only is an existing antichristian papacy not mentioned in the text. It did not even come into existence until 500+ years after the text was written. How then is it possible to exegete it directly from the text?
The whole point of prophecy is to foretell things that weren't in existence when the text was written.

Christ's suffering didn't exist yet when Isaiah wrote Isaiah 53.

The Persian, Greek, and Roman empires didn't exist when Daniel wrote Daniel 7-12.

Christ's humiliation didn't exist yet when David wrote Psalm 22.

The virgin birth didn't exist yet when Isaiah wrote Isaiah 7.
 
As you observe, not only is an existing antichristian papacy not mentioned in the text. It did not even come into existence until 500+ years after the text was written. How then is it possible to exegete it directly from the text? Instead you have to impose it on the text from the outside. And I’m guessing it was much longer before anyone even attempted this. I’m fine if someone wants to present this as a “theory that fits the facts” as the dispensationalists do, but let’s at least admit the irregular hermeneutic in play.
I will be careful to not state this too confidently since it's a while since I looked into this, but I remember reading Iraneus of Lyons (I think it was him, I could be mixing it up) and seeing an understanding that is for the most part what a historicist would expect to be understood prior to the point in which the fulfillment could be looked at in the eyes.
There is also a pope that, upon being offered primacy, refused saying that if anyone took that title he'd be the antichrist. His successor took it... (I won't state this confidently either as I don't have time to fact-check myself on the details, I need to leave for church. Have a blessed Lord's Day everyone).
 
1 Cor. 3:15-16, "Know ye not that ye are the temple of God, and that the Spirit of God dwelleth in you? If any man defile the temple of God, him shall God destroy; for the temple of God is holy, which temple ye are."

Why would the goings on of the Jewish temple be of any spiritual significance to the New Testament church? The Church is the temple
The whole point of prophecy is to foretell things that weren't in existence when the text was written.

Christ's suffering didn't exist yet when Isaiah wrote Isaiah 53.

The Persian, Greek, and Roman empires didn't exist when Daniel wrote Daniel 7-12.

Christ's humiliation didn't exist yet when David wrote Psalm 22.

The virgin birth didn't exist yet when Isaiah wrote Isaiah 7.
Apples and oranges. It ignores the fact that the NT references to the man of lawlessness, antichrist, and the beast are all clearly placed in the immediate time-context of the original addressees, and they knew who was being discussed.
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Because the Church is God's temple
Nero certainly defiled the Church too so I’m not sure how that advances your argument.
 
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Apples and oranges. It ignores the fact that the NT references to the man of lawlessness, antichrist, and the beast are all clearly placed in the immediate time-context of the original addressees
That remains to be shown, and I think it's actually contrary to fact.

2 Thes. 2 mentions the coming of the man of sin as something that must take place "in his time" (not at the present), prior to Christ's return and the final judgment, and consequent to the removal of "he who now letteth."

"Let no man deceive you by any means: for that day shall not come, except there come a falling away first, and that man of sin be revealed, the son of perdition... And now ye know what withholdeth that he might be revealed in his time. For the mystery of iniquity doth already work: only he who now letteth will let, until he be taken out of the way."

Paul's whole argument to the Thessalonians that Christ has not come and will not immediately do so hinges on the revelation of the man of sin not being immediate.
 
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I'm not very well versed in this matter, so forgive me if I'm wrong, but even if the context is immediate, does that matter? No one suggests 1 Cor. 15:51 has already taken place. And a lot of OT prophecies aren't written in a future tense. So, how important is the 'time context' for prophecy?
 
Can’t type much on mobile right now but key idea for me is seeing the office of the papacy as the antichrist instead of a single individual, the papacy as the little horn in Daniel arising from the Roman Empire, and the Roman Empire as the restrainer to be removed before the papacy can accumulate power and fill the gap left by the fall of the Roman Empire. Not all may agree on those details that hold to the confession, but fits history very well. I have more reading to do but those points are what convinced me and I had never heard that before.
 
None of that makes any sense. Is it newspaper eschatology to observe that Daniel’s 70-weeks prophecy set a time frame within which the Messiah would come?

The point is that you have to "APPLY" the prophetic program to contemporary events that are not recorded in the Bible. You have to go outside the Bible to verify the fulfilment of prophecy. Your criticism of the reformers bounces back on you.
 
What’s with these memes about Francis going to heaven? Doesn’t RC dogma teach that he’s in purgatory for the time being?
 
What’s with these memes about Francis going to heaven? Doesn’t RC dogma teach that he’s in purgatory for the time being?
There are different conceptions of purgatory and its relation to remaining sin and guilt, but the general idea I think is that those who have achieved sinless perfection go directly to heaven, those who have unatoned for venial sins go to purgatory, and those who have unatoned for mortal sins go to hell.
 
There are different conceptions of purgatory and its relation to remaining sin and guilt, but the general idea I think is that those who have achieved sinless perfection go directly to heaven, those who have unatoned for venial sins go to purgatory, and those who have unatoned for mortal sins go to hell.
That’s what I understood… but that only the Saints get to skip purgatory. I guess there’s a lot about their system I still don’t understand!
 
That’s what I understood… but that only the Saints get to skip purgatory. I guess there’s a lot about their system I still don’t understand!
I don’t think Saints necessarily skip pergatory, rather they are no longer in pergatory and are now able to be worshipped.. sorry ‘venerated.’
 
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