RPW, No Instruments, Psalm 150

Status
Not open for further replies.

Ryan&Amber2013

Puritan Board Graduate
I've been once again looking into the role instruments play in musical worship for the Church. I'd be really curious to hear anyone's take on Psalm 150.

[1] Praise the Lord! Praise God in his sanctuary; praise him in his mighty heavens! [2] Praise him for his mighty deeds; praise him according to his excellent greatness! [3] Praise him with trumpet sound; praise him with lute and harp! [4] Praise him with tambourine and dance; praise him with strings and pipe! [5] Praise him with sounding cymbals; praise him with loud clashing cymbals! [6] Let everything that has breath praise the Lord! Praise the Lord!

This seems to be referring to every believer, in any place, worshipping Him with any instrument.
 
It was referring to worship during the Psalmist's time - temple worship - which looks very different than worship after Jesus Christ has come. I commented this in another thread recently but I find it interesting that people read a reference to an instruments in the Psalms and jump on that saying we should have insturments in modern worship but I've yet to hear anyone say we should sacrifice burnt offerings of fatlings in our worship today since it's mentioned in Psalm 66.
"I will go into thy house with burnt offerings: I will pay thee my vows, Which my lips have uttered, and my mouth hath spoken, when I was in trouble. I will offer unto thee burnt sacrifices of fatlings, with the incense of rams; I will offer bullocks with goats. Selah." - Psalm 66:13-15
 
I've been once again looking into the role instruments play in musical worship for the Church. I'd be really curious to hear anyone's take on Psalm 150.

[1] Praise the Lord! Praise God in his sanctuary; praise him in his mighty heavens! [2] Praise him for his mighty deeds; praise him according to his excellent greatness! [3] Praise him with trumpet sound; praise him with lute and harp! [4] Praise him with tambourine and dance; praise him with strings and pipe! [5] Praise him with sounding cymbals; praise him with loud clashing cymbals! [6] Let everything that has breath praise the Lord! Praise the Lord!

This seems to be referring to every believer, in any place, worshipping Him with any instrument.
Check verse 1: "Praise God in his sanctuary," i.e., in his holy place. It's referring to temple worship, and only Levites played instruments (specific instruments) in the temple.
 
A couple of verses as Biblical context for Ps 150, showing how instruments were used in the sanctuary. These refer to the reigns of Solomon and Hezekiah, respectively.

“And the priests waited on their offices: the Levites also with instruments of musick of the Lord, which David the king had made to praise the Lord, because his mercy endureth for ever, when David praised by their ministry; and the priests sounded trumpets before them, and all Israel stood.” (2 Ch 7:6)

“And he set the Levites in the house of the Lord with cymbals, with psalteries, and with harps, according to the commandment of David, and of Gad the king’s seer, and Nathan the prophet: for so was the commandment of the Lord by his prophets. And the Levites stood with the instruments of David, and the priests with the trumpets.” (2 Ch 29:25-26)
 
For those already providing answers, thank you! I have an added question for you.

As psalm-only folks, how do you pair your exegesis of Psalm 150 (focused on temple worship) with the ‘pointing to Christ’ nature of the psalms?

In other words, if the instruments are only about temple worship, how is the psalm about Christ? Or, how come we cannot use the instruments in the NC, but we can sing about using instruments in the NC? What are you thinking about when you sing Psalm 150? What aspect of NC worship do the instruments point to, if the temple points to Christ and the burnt offerings of other psalms point to Christ’s work?

Thanks
 
For those already providing answers, thank you! I have an added question for you.

As psalm-only folks, how do you pair your exegesis of Psalm 150 (focused on temple worship) with the ‘pointing to Christ’ nature of the psalms?

In other words, if the instruments are only about temple worship, how is the psalm about Christ? Or, how come we cannot use the instruments in the NC, but we can sing about using instruments in the NC? What are you thinking about when you sing Psalm 150? What aspect of NC worship do the instruments point to, if the temple points to Christ and the burnt offerings of other psalms point to Christ’s work?

Thanks
The old standard commentators are helpful on these matters.

Calvin:
"Let the reader remember that sundry different kinds [of instruments] are here mentioned, which were in use under the legal economy, the more forcibly to teach the children of God that they cannot apply themselves too diligently to the praises of God — as if he would enjoin them strenuously to bring to this service all their powers, and devote themselves wholly to it."

Gill:
"They were typical of the spiritual melody made in the hearts of God's people, while they are praising him in psalms, hymns, and spiritual songs, under the Gospel."
 
Last edited by a moderator:
It was referring to worship during the Psalmist's time - temple worship - which looks very different than worship after Jesus Christ has come. I commented this in another thread recently but I find it interesting that people read a reference to an instruments in the Psalms and jump on that saying we should have insturments in modern worship but I've yet to hear anyone say we should sacrifice burnt offerings of fatlings in our worship today since it's mentioned in Psalm 66.
"I will go into thy house with burnt offerings: I will pay thee my vows, Which my lips have uttered, and my mouth hath spoken, when I was in trouble. I will offer unto thee burnt sacrifices of fatlings, with the incense of rams; I will offer bullocks with goats. Selah." - Psalm 66:13-15
Hi brother. Thanks for this. Here are two thoughts:
1. Why is dancing included in this? That wasn't a part of temple worship.
2. I believe Hebrews and other NT places are clear that Jesus' sacrifice is the one and final sacrifice we embrace. But with instruments I don't see a fulfillment.

Thoughts?
 
Check verse 1: "Praise God in his sanctuary," i.e., in his holy place. It's referring to temple worship, and only Levites played instruments (specific instruments) in the temple.
Thank you. How about "in His mighty heavens"? I see this as not only where God's people gather, but everywhere as well.

Thoughts?
 
I write this as someone who doesn't have a theological problem with musical accompaniment for singing; and I am not willing to disturb the peace of the church over whether an offertory or a background communion-service instrumental is played.

If someone wants to argue that Ps.150 permits him the use of instruments, he shouldn't feel free to substitute a PIANO for the PIPE just because the former is convenient to him or suits him. It would seem to me his argument is either specific and complete, or else it is patently special pleading.

Furthermore, what does the argument do with "dancing?" If Ps.150 is an argument in favor of instruments, generally, for use in public stated worship; then isn't the acceptance of dancing in the identical context also acceptable?

I think both these observations militate against the justice of leaning on Ps.150 for biblical warrant regarding the use of musical instruments in worship. First, because most who would take it up aren't willing to take it up in detail, but use it for "the principle" of instruments; second, because it would open the door to dancing in the aisles, and other dramatic use of the human body by drawing on the very same "principle" that justified the musical appropriation of the text.
 
A couple of verses as Biblical context for Ps 150, showing how instruments were used in the sanctuary. These refer to the reigns of Solomon and Hezekiah, respectively.

“And the priests waited on their offices: the Levites also with instruments of musick of the Lord, which David the king had made to praise the Lord, because his mercy endureth for ever, when David praised by their ministry; and the priests sounded trumpets before them, and all Israel stood.” (2 Ch 7:6)

“And he set the Levites in the house of the Lord with cymbals, with psalteries, and with harps, according to the commandment of David, and of Gad the king’s seer, and Nathan the prophet: for so was the commandment of the Lord by his prophets. And the Levites stood with the instruments of David, and the priests with the trumpets.” (2 Ch 29:25-26)
Thank you. Did God authorize every instrument in this Psalm? Like the pipe; was that used in temple worship?
 
I write this as someone who doesn't have a theological problem with musical accompaniment for singing; and I am not willing to disturb the peace of the church over whether an offertory or a background communion-service instrumental is played.

If someone wants to argue that Ps.150 permits him the use of instruments, he shouldn't feel free to substitute a PIANO for the PIPE just because the former is convenient to him or suits him. It would seem to me his argument is either specific and complete, or else it is patently special pleading.

Furthermore, what does the argument do with "dancing?" If Ps.150 is an argument in favor of instruments, generally, for use in public stated worship; then isn't the acceptance of dancing in the identical context also acceptable?

I think both these observations militate against the justice of leaning on Ps.150 for biblical warrant regarding the use of musical instruments in worship. First, because most who would take it up aren't willing to take it up in detail, but use it for "the principle" of instruments; second, because it would open the door to dancing in the aisles, and other dramatic use of the human body by drawing on the very same "principle" that justified the musical appropriation of the text.
Thank you for this. I think we need to be willing to embrace truth regardless of our preference. So for me, if God says dancing is a pleasing form of worship to Him, I shouldn't try to suppress that. We don't practice that, and I'm not saying this passage does or doesn't command it (because I'm undecided), but if it really is saying dancing can be a legitimate form of worship, we can't ignore it or teach against it.

As far as the context of the instruments of the Psalm, it just seems all-inclusive rather than "use only these." Those were the instruments of the time, that different people would use, and he's basically giving them freedom to use what they had. Like a tambourine. That wasn't used in the temple, and I read that's an instrument women would normally play at that time.

I'm still wrestling through this stuff, but I'm just not convinced yet of the more conservative view.
 
Thank you for this. I think we need to be willing to embrace truth regardless of our preference. So for me, if God says dancing is a pleasing form of worship to Him, I shouldn't try to suppress that. We don't practice that, and I'm not saying this passage does or doesn't command it (because I'm undecided), but if it really is saying dancing can be a legitimate form of worship, we can't ignore it or teach against it.

As far as the context of the instruments of the Psalm, it just seems all-inclusive rather than "use only these." Those were the instruments of the time, that different people would use, and he's basically giving them freedom to use what they had. Like a tambourine. That wasn't used in the temple, and I read that's an instrument women would normally play at that time.

I'm still wrestling through this stuff, but I'm just not convinced yet of the more conservative view.
It might be helpful to study all the instruments and their uses in the Scriptures. Some were for public tabernacle/temple worship, some for palace entertainment, some for calling to battle, some for victory after battle, and so on. I find the meaning of Ps.150 goes beyond corporate worship - more like the message of 1 Corinthians 10:31.
 
Thank you. Did God authorize every instrument in this Psalm? Like the pipe; was that used in temple worship?
If the pipe is mentioned in the Psalm, it was clearly authorized. I don't think we have to understand the list in 2 Chronicles 29 as exhaustive of what God commanded through David and Gad.
 
Hi brother. Thanks for this. Here are two thoughts:
1. Why is dancing included in this? That wasn't a part of temple worship.
2. I believe Hebrews and other NT places are clear that Jesus' sacrifice is the one and final sacrifice we embrace. But with instruments I don't see a fulfillment.

Thoughts?
@TylerRay and others, would it be correct to say that mentions of the dance in the Psalms (like Psalm 149:2-3) should be taken to refer to civic celebrations, like with Miriam and the women after the crossing of the Red Sea and King David when they brought back the ark?
 
Nobody here is suggesting that. And a piano is a stringed instrument.
This response misses the point of my deprecation. Nor did my proposition imply that anyone in this discussion offered this or the like concept. Here's a quote from the opening post:
I'd be really curious to hear anyone's take on Psalm 150.
So... I gave my take on Ps.150, in opposition to the idea that because Ps150 includes the imperatives of playing specified instruments in praise of God, this simple fact authorizes instruments indiscriminately for the public worship of God. Even if one did think Ps.150 makes an authorization of musical instruments for public stated worship across all eras of the church, he is bound to the exact terms of the text. We are not free to make substitutions on a whim; at least there must be an appropriate biblical argument supporting a substitution.

The idea that the piano, a stupendously complex, modern instrument conceived only in the last half a millennium, fits conceptually in the biblical language defined semantic range of a "stringed instrument" is laughable. We modern people may think of it as a "stringed instrument," but that's because we are operating in a different conceptual world. The piano is only a distant analogy to the biblically conceived stringed instrument. If I'd thought about it for longer, I would have made a different proposal for my disallowable substitution:

"he shouldn't feel free to substitute a PIANO for the STRINGED INSTRUMENT"

The point of my deprecation would have been made with just a bit more force. Not only may we not substitute quite different instruments as the alleged justification is set forth, but even proposing analogous instruments by a convenient categorical comparison are an effort to bend the text to our will. We must always submit to the text, and not feel free to interpret it prejudicially. At the very least, it would require first proving that the imperatives have normative force covering public stated worship.

I personally think a piano typically provides about the right level of assistance to an average sized congregation singing in an average sized meeting room. I don't have a problem with a piano for accompaniment in worship song. But neither do I make attempt to leverage Ps.150 to justify an end for which it was not prepared, and would discourage it.
 
This response misses the point of my deprecation. Nor did my proposition imply that anyone in this discussion offered this or the like concept. Here's a quote from the opening post:

So... I gave my take on Ps.150, in opposition to the idea that because Ps150 includes the imperatives of playing specified instruments in praise of God, this simple fact authorizes instruments indiscriminately for the public worship of God. Even if one did think Ps.150 makes an authorization of musical instruments for public stated worship across all eras of the church, he is bound to the exact terms of the text. We are not free to make substitutions on a whim; at least there must be an appropriate biblical argument supporting a substitution.

The idea that the piano, a stupendously complex, modern instrument conceived only in the last half a millennium, fits conceptually in the biblical language defined semantic range of a "stringed instrument" is laughable. We modern people may think of it as a "stringed instrument," but that's because we are operating in a different conceptual world. The piano is only a distant analogy to the biblically conceived stringed instrument. If I'd thought about it for longer, I would have made a different proposal for my disallowable substitution:

"he shouldn't feel free to substitute a PIANO for the STRINGED INSTRUMENT"

The point of my deprecation would have been made with just a bit more force. Not only may we not substitute quite different instruments as the alleged justification is set forth, but even proposing analogous instruments by a convenient categorical comparison are an effort to bend the text to our will. We must always submit to the text, and not feel free to interpret it prejudicially. At the very least, it would require first proving that the imperatives have normative force covering public stated worship.

I personally think a piano typically provides about the right level of assistance to an average sized congregation singing in an average sized meeting room. I don't have a problem with a piano for accompaniment in worship song. But neither do I make attempt to leverage Ps.150 to justify an end for which it was not prepared, and would discourage it.
I write this as someone who does have a theological problem with musical accompaniment for singing in the current dispensation of grace but I, too, am not willing to disturb the peace of the church over whether an offertory or a background communion-service instrumental is played.
...if one did think Ps.150 makes an authorization of musical instruments for public stated worship across all eras of the church, he is bound to the exact terms of the text.
I'm not sure how you can posit this. If someone wants to argue that Ps.150 permits the use of instruments, they are feel free to substitute a piano for stringed instruments for the pipe because Psalm 150 is not giving an exhaustive or exclusive list of instruments used in tabernacle/temple worship. Rather the psalmist seems to be employing a synecdoche. If you think Psalm 150 allows for instruments in worship, you cannot then limit which instruments are used.
But neither do I make attempt to leverage Ps.150 to justify an end for which it was not prepared, and would discourage it.
Agreed. As expressed previously, I do not believe Psalm 150 is allowing instruments in worship, nor do I think it is talking about worship - it is talking about praising our Creator at all times in every aspect of our walk on this earth (which would include worship as part of ones life).
I personally think a piano typically provides about the right level of assistance to an average sized congregation singing in an average sized meeting room. I don't have a problem with a piano for accompaniment in worship song.
So how do you theologically justify this? How do you justify this instrument (a piano) and not that one (amplified electric ukulele)? I personally think a violin typically provides about the right level of assistance to an average sized congregation singing in an average sized meeting room but I have a problem with a violin for accompaniment in worship song.
 
As you can see, there are different understandings of the psalm. However, whatever understanding one takes of it, it is clear it cannot be used to justify instruments in worship today, as can be seen as one follows the different interpretations through to the end. In accordance with the expansion theme (inviting the Gentiles to praise and for such praise to occur in more places; for the binding of kings even, Psalm 149) of the psalter as it progresses and now reaches its climax, I view Psalm 150 as starting with worship in the sanctuary and then expanding out further to instruments that were not used in the temple and then further still to reach "let everything that has breath praise the Lord." Even when it was written, there was no intention of commanding each and every one to use instruments in praising the Lord.

The psalter is prophetic literature, being breathed out by prophets and speaking of Christ prophetically (as seen by its use in the NT). It is expected then that it carries much symbolism and stretching of imagery (see Isaiah 66 for another example of this in prophetic literature; the OT imagery is stretched and expanded to describe NT realities and the ingathering of the Gentiles).

Here is Godfrey's view, which is similar: https://wscal.edu/resource-center/praise-the-lord-psalm-150
 
Thank you. So you think sanctuary and mighty heavens are the same thing?
I'd say they're related as type and antitype, and that types and antitypes are often substituted one for another, especially in poetry.

Perhaps the best way to think of this Psalm is as describing heavenly/spiritual worship in terms of temple worship.
 
I write this as someone who does have a theological problem with musical accompaniment for singing in the current dispensation of grace but I, too, am not willing to disturb the peace of the church over whether an offertory or a background communion-service instrumental is played.
I recognize your stance from your church-affiliation, and commend your patience in respect to reformation in this arena.
I'm not sure how you can posit this [...if one did think Ps.150 makes an authorization of musical instruments for public stated worship across all eras of the church, he is bound to the exact terms of the text.]. If someone wants to argue that Ps.150 permits the use of instruments, they are feel free to substitute a piano for stringed instruments for the pipe because Psalm 150 is not giving an exhaustive or exclusive list of instruments used in tabernacle/temple worship. Rather the psalmist seems to be employing a synecdoche. If you think Psalm 150 allows for instruments in worship, you cannot then limit which instruments are used.
No, it doesn't follow by strict logic. Each step toward the conclusion "I can use a piano in worship" based initially on one or more conclusions drawn from the text of Ps.150 requires a biblical, not a prudential or pragmatic, argument. The conclusions drawn from Ps.150 must be rigorously developed from the grammatico-historic rules of interpretation, not individual culturally attuned intuition. Furthermore, it is not the case one may legitimately posit "Ps.150 obviously permits the use of instruments," and then leap from there to a further conclusion on what is essentially no basis at all, that "Thus I may substitute whatever suits my need right now for the terms of the text." That whole form of reasoning is a conclusion in search of a justification; the person already knows what he wants (a piano, a drum set, a zither...) so he's looking for support.

Next, it does not follow that: Ps.150 either supplies an exhaustive list (for instruments in worship), or others must be permitted by substitution. Suppose (for argument's sake) there existed an exhaustive list of authorized instruments. These commands to praise the Lord on certain instruments would neither 1) authorize the substitution--though it might permit the augmentation--by another authorized instrument (you may not fail to use the commanded instrument); nor 2) would it authorize substitution or augmentation by unauthorized instruments. It simply does not follow that the person professing to fulfill the command is free to substitute at will; and all I need to do to prove the point is by reference to Lev.10, the substitution there that was so severely penalized.

If you are saying, "Well, they are doing what they want with Ps.150 anyway, so in their minds they are justified in substitution," that is most certainly true; however all along I have been at pains to subvert the typical special-pleading nature of looking to Ps.150 for support of the a priori. On display is a cascade of weak and fallacious argument, beginning with a most superficial, tenuous connection to the literal words of Holy Scripture (a violation of the 3rd Commandment).
So how do you theologically justify this [I personally think a piano typically provides about the right level of assistance to an average sized congregation singing in an average sized meeting room. I don't have a problem with a piano for accompaniment in worship song.]? How do you justify this instrument (a piano) and not that one (amplified electric ukulele)? I personally think a violin typically provides about the right level of assistance to an average sized congregation singing in an average sized meeting room but I have a problem with a violin for accompaniment in worship song.
I really do not want to divert the purpose of the thread. Briefly, since I think a piano (or a pitchpipe, or a violin) may be used circumstantially as an aid to congregational singing, while it could be dispensed with entirely and no damage done to worship, its use should make a good work more efficient and not detract. Just as the presence or absence of artificial lighting in a church, while is could be dispensed with entirely and no damage done to worship, its use should make a good work more efficient and not detract.

As for an amplified electric ukulele, first convince me that this instrument for accompaniment has the least likely potential for detracting from the good work as opposed to another available option, or that it is better for the good work to have it than to dispense with it altogether. As with any circumstantial use, this judgment requires prudence.
 
I recognize your stance from your church-affiliation, and commend your patience in respect to reformation in this arena.

No, it doesn't follow by strict logic. Each step toward the conclusion "I can use a piano in worship" based initially on one or more conclusions drawn from the text of Ps.150 requires a biblical, not a prudential or pragmatic, argument. The conclusions drawn from Ps.150 must be rigorously developed from the grammatico-historic rules of interpretation, not individual culturally attuned intuition. Furthermore, it is not the case one may legitimately posit "Ps.150 obviously permits the use of instruments," and then leap from there to a further conclusion on what is essentially no basis at all, that "Thus I may substitute whatever suits my need right now for the terms of the text." That whole form of reasoning is a conclusion in search of a justification; the person already knows what he wants (a piano, a drum set, a zither...) so he's looking for support.

Next, it does not follow that: Ps.150 either supplies an exhaustive list (for instruments in worship), or others must be permitted by substitution. Suppose (for argument's sake) there existed an exhaustive list of authorized instruments. These commands to praise the Lord on certain instruments would neither 1) authorize the substitution--though it might permit the augmentation--by another authorized instrument (you may not fail to use the commanded instrument); nor 2) would it authorize substitution or augmentation by unauthorized instruments. It simply does not follow that the person professing to fulfill the command is free to substitute at will; and all I need to do to prove the point is by reference to Lev.10, the substitution there that was so severely penalized.

If you are saying, "Well, they are doing what they want with Ps.150 anyway, so in their minds they are justified in substitution," that is most certainly true; however all along I have been at pains to subvert the typical special-pleading nature of looking to Ps.150 for support of the a priori. On display is a cascade of weak and fallacious argument, beginning with a most superficial, tenuous connection to the literal words of Holy Scripture (a violation of the 3rd Commandment).

I really do not want to divert the purpose of the thread. Briefly, since I think a piano (or a pitchpipe, or a violin) may be used circumstantially as an aid to congregational singing, while it could be dispensed with entirely and no damage done to worship, its use should make a good work more efficient and not detract. Just as the presence or absence of artificial lighting in a church, while is could be dispensed with entirely and no damage done to worship, its use should make a good work more efficient and not detract.

As for an amplified electric ukulele, first convince me that this instrument for accompaniment has the least likely potential for detracting from the good work as opposed to another available option, or that it is better for the good work to have it than to dispense with it altogether. As with any circumstantial use, this judgment requires prudence.
Do you think, as Ramón has well-stated, that the psalmist seems to be employing a synecdoche in Psalm 150?
I view Psalm 150 as starting with worship in the sanctuary and then expanding out further to instruments that were not used in the temple and then further still to reach "let everything that has breath praise the Lord."
That is, that he is mentioning part of the musical instrument spectrum (in different aspects of life) to represent the whole, and is using instruments symbolically to represent all aspects of human activity (public tabernacle/temple worship, some for palace entertainment, some for calling to battle, some for victory after battle, etc.)?
 
Do you think, as Ramón has well-stated, that the psalmist seems to be employing a synecdoche in Psalm 150?

That is, that he is mentioning part of the musical instrument spectrum (in different aspects of life) to represent the whole, and is using instruments symbolically to represent all aspects of human activity (public tabernacle/temple worship, some for palace entertainment, some for calling to battle, some for victory after battle, etc.)?
I incline very much toward this interpretation, as it is conservative and tied closely and firmly to the text. I "liked" Afterthought's post because I felt he well-summarized the intent of Ps.150. It takes the imperatives in their fullest sense, i.e. where called corporate worship is in view, some instrument that must be used is commanded (matter & manner followed obediently); and in settings where there is no Regulative Principle at work, emphasis with respect to the command falls on the matter rather than the manner, the named instrument or any other expression of praise is authorized and expected under one directive.
 
I was just studying Psalm 33.
‭‭
[1] Shout for joy in the Lord, O you righteous! Praise befits the upright. [2] Give thanks to the Lord with the lyre; make melody to him with the harp of ten strings! [3] Sing to him a new song; play skillfully on the strings, with loud shouts.

To me it just doesn't appear that instruments were only for the Levites. This Psalm is addressed to God's people in general. Here it is the righteous who are being told to play skillfully, and not just Levites. There are other examples of non-Levites worshipping God with instruments, David being one of them.

The implications are pretty important here too. If God really is pleased with instruments and elders are telling people they can't use them, this is just as much a violation of the RPW.

I was just reading this: "Spurgeon was one who preferred worship sung without musical instruments, but he would not command it. “We who do not believe these things to be expedient in worship, lest they should mar its simplicity, do not affirm them to be unlawful, and if any George Herbert or Martin Luther can worship God better by the aid of well-tuned instruments, who shall gainsay their right? We do not need them, they would hinder than help our praise but if others are otherwise minded, are they not living in gospel liberty?”
 
To me it just doesn't appear that instruments were only for the Levites. This Psalm is addressed to God's people in general. Here it is the righteous who are being told to play skillfully, and not just Levites. There are other examples of non-Levites worshipping God with instruments, David being one of them.

The implications are pretty important here too. If God really is pleased with instruments and elders are telling people they can't use them, this is just as much a violation of the RPW.
First, I don't think you are taking the reality of OT stated public worship into your picture. The people most definitely did not play instruments in Temple worship. The people were not even permitted beyond a certain point in the many barriers to the sanctuary. Yet, they were part of the worship through their mediators who did the worship-work for them. What I do for you, you can be said to do, if it is done on your behalf, and this is 100% the case in OT worship. When the priests played those instruments, the whole people were playing them. The encouragement of "the righteous" to do and to thank as they are commanded happened in the context of Temple worship through the people's representatives; their instruments were the Levites playing instruments.

We have to read the encouragements of the Psalm through the facts of how it was done if public stated worship is the topic. And that work was not done by the people, but for the people. Outside of that strict RPW governed situation, the righteous had other personal liberties they might be able to exercise in respect of handling instruments for honoring their God.

Second, we are New Covenant people. We do not take our instructions on what is the acceptable elements and their forms directly from the OT. In anything. We take them all from the NT. There are analogous practices and forms contained in the OT, to that which we now gather to fulfill. There are elements that show the continuity going all the way back through the Old Covenant ways and means, and even further before the Old Covenant to the patriarchs and back to Noah and Adam. But the ways we are directed to worship now come through instruction by the apostles. When they tell us to sing the Psalms, hymns and spiritual songs, we obey. We make use of the Psalter, but we don't do the sacrifices the Psalms tells the singers to do; nor follow any other particular that belongs exclusively to the previous age, except that it is filtered through the NT on its way to us.

Does God ordain the instruments for NT worship, the way he ordained them for OT worship? Just reading about them, or even singing (obediently) about them from the Psalter won't answer that question for a NT Christian.
 
Status
Not open for further replies.
Back
Top