Since the Jews counted days from evening to evening instead of from morning to morning, "the first day of the week" in Acts 20:8 and 1 Corinthians 16:1-2 could be equivalent to our "Saturday night" instead of our "Sunday morning." In Revelation 1:10, I always interpreted "I was in the spirit on the Lord's day" to mean "I was spiritually at the day of the Lord." Even if "the Lord's day" refers to a day of worship, it could just as easily refer to the Sabbath as it could to Sunday. The New Testament never explicitly says that the Sabbath was transferred to Sunday. Ellen White insisted that the Roman Empire changed the Sabbath to Sunday, but modern Seventh Day Adventists believe the change happened much earlier, around the second century.
I personally worship on Sunday, but I do so primarily on the basis of church tradition and Colossians 2:16-17 -- "Let no man therefore judge you in meat or in drink or in respect of a feast day or of a new moon or of a Sabbath day, which are a shadow of things to come, but the body is Christ's."
LBC ch.22 Of Religious Worship and the Sabbath Day
Paragraph 7. As it is the law of nature, that in general a proportion of time, by God's appointment, be set apart for the worship of God, so by his Word, in a positive moral, and perpetual commandment, binding all men, in all ages, he has particularly appointed one day in seven for a sabbath to be kept holy unto him,28 which from the beginning of the world to the resurrection of Christ was the last day of the week, and from the resurrection of Christ was changed into the first day of the week, which is called the Lord's Day:29 and is to be continued to the end of the world as the Christian Sabbath, the observation of the last day of the week being abolished.
One of the things that the SDA church runs with is that regardless of Christ's appearing on the 1st day of the week or His resurrection, there is no express command that changes the day or makes an explicit correlation between these events and the change of the day. Admittedly, it seems that the correlations that we make are in part based in assumption (that Christ's appearing indicates a change of day), practice (Acts. 20, 1 Cor. 16) and history (early/apocryphal writings, etc.). Honestly, though I agree with the day change, I get a little uneasy to think of it as sinful since there is no express commandment and the NT's somewhat silent approach to the issue. However, I am more than likely missing something due to the many reformers who felt clearer about it than I do...
I think what you've put your finger upon is some of what Col.2:16 is referring to. "Some" being the helpful qualifier there.For example, there were (I believe) three morning and three evening sacrifices that were to be offered on the Sabbath. That was obviously done away with. If this is a proper distinction, could this be some of what Col. 2:16 is referring to?
Like Nicholas was saying, they need to be pointed to Christ as the fulfillment of the law rather than looking to the law itself.
The question of substance is whether Paul means by "Sabbath" in that sentence anything in particular relating to the Sabbath of the 4th (moral) commandment.
The word "Sabbath" is applied in the OT, in particular applied respecting the (whole) Law, to more than merely the 7th-day Sabbath. It was applied to the day of Atonement, always the tenth day of the seventh month, and applied to the seventh year in the Sabbatical cycle. From the description of the restrictions applied to the Day of Atonement (see Lev.23:27-32), when we note that other days contained similar restrictions on work (e.g. the day of Pentecost), it is clear that "Sabbath" is a term that takes on a broad description, with special application to the ceremonial rests ordained in the Law of Moses.
In Col.2:16, does Paul mean "Sabbaths" in a broad or a narrow sense? In a ceremonial or a moral sense? When we observe the use of the whole phrase, "...with regard to a festival or a new moon or a Sabbath," as it is found elsewhere in the OT (1Chr.23:31; 2Chr.2:4; 8:13; 31:3; Hos.2:11; Ezk.45:17; Neh.10:33), it is presented as a catch-all phrase for the totality of the ceremonial life of the holy nation.
I judge Paul, in the context, to be occupied wholly with delivering the Christian church in Colosse (and everywhere else) from the burden of Israelite ceremonies, including all such ceremonies as were tied to the old 7th-day Sabbath, and all other calendar restrictions and duties that went by the name of "Sabbath." But this deliverance has no impact upon the moral obligation of the 4th commandment. The moral obligations are as old as Gen.2:3, thousands of years older than Moses and his law. They are as fundamental as prohibitions on murder, which were certainly in force before Gen.4:8.
In short, Paul does not say, "Let no one pass judgment on you in moral questions." Nothing could be plainer--that simple, moral Sabbath observance predates the giving of the Law with all its ceremonies, Ex.20ff--than the Israelites' practice in regard to the manna, Ex.16.
Hope this is helpful.
I am posting it here for an examination of Colossians 2:16 and the triad phrase that is used in this passage along next to the Old Testament passage in Hosea 2:11.
(Col 2:16) Let no man therefore judge you in meat, or in drink, or in respect of an holyday, or of the new moon, or of the sabbath days:
(Hos 2:11) I will also cause all her mirth to cease, her feast days, her new moons, and her sabbaths, and all her solemn feasts.
A lot of Baptist and non-sabbattarians like to quote Colossians 2:16 as a passage that declares we need not keep a weekly Sabbath day to the Lord. Richard Barcellos is the author. Please forgive my inept mistakes in copying it from a pdf to here.
1. The Old Testament prophesies the abrogation and cessation of the Sabbath under the New Covenant.
The OT clearly prophesies the abrogation and cessation of ancient Israel‘s Sabbaths. It does so in Hos. 2:11, which says, ―I will also cause all her mirth to cease, her feast days, her New Moons, her Sabbaths–all her appointed feasts.” We will make several observations that bear this out. First, Hosea‘s prophecy is dealing with the days of the New Covenant. The phrase ―in that day” (vv. 16, 18, 21) is used prophetically of New Covenant days in Is. 22:20. Revelation 3:7 quotes Is. 22:22 and applies it to Christ. The prophecy in Is. 22:20 mentions the Lord‘s servant, who is Christ. Isaiah 22:20-22 says:
Then it shall be in that day, that I will call My servant Eliakim the son of Hilkiah; I will clothe him with your robe and strengthen him with your belt; I will commit your responsibility into his hand. He shall be a father to the inhabitants of Jerusalem and to the house of Judah. The key of the house of David I will lay on his shoulder; so he shall open, and no one shall shut; and he shall shut, and no one shall open.
Click on the link above to read the rest of the article.
I'm uncertain what is the nature of your question. Are you asking whether no argument can be mounted out of Rom.14:5-6 and Col.2:16 in support of an anti-Sabbatarian, or 4th Commandment eliminative, position? Those arguments are quite common. I don't think they manage very well against a robust and full-Scripture defense of the moral requirements of the 4C.
Are you asking a different sort of question, namely if Rom.14:5-6 (stand alone argument) makes or allows for an everyday or 7-days-a-week Sabbath? I honestly don't think that idea is anywhere near what Paul is addressing in that passage. "Esteems all days alike," is set in distinction from an occasional recognition of particular days which for Jews had been woven into the warp of their social order.
I'm sure Paul would recognize the principle that if everything is (or is labeled) some particular thing, then nothing is that something in particular. If there is no special "remembrance," then whatever I choose to do at any given time--as long as it isn't violating my conscience--is by this rule granted the sanction of Sabbath-observance. So the making of all days into THE Sabbath of moral requirement is equivalent to abolishing the Sabbath.
Because I think Scripture does establish the continuing validity of the moral essentials of the 4C, I feel comfortable saying that there is nothing in Rom.14:5-6 or anywhere else in Scripture supporting the notion: the Christian life is just sailing along every day in a perpetual type of Sabbath moment. It is "overrealized eschatology" to fail in remembrance of the richer experience of rest that awaits us, that Christ has already begun for us, which we may enter into by faith. We actually receive a better foretaste of it in answering his summons to his promised blessings on his Day than our six-days-a-week engagements are sufficient for. "There remains a Sabbathing for the people of God," Heb.4:9.
Not to derail the thread, but I had a related question:
Recently I heard someone use the phrase "Jesus is our Sabbath rest", to support the idea that there was no longer a ceasing from our daily activities or labors. Does anyone know where this idea comes from? Hebrews 4?