Vindicating the Masoretic Text

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Joseph&Jami

Puritan Board Freshman
I want to share my blog with readers on textual issues, Reformed Masora.
Here's my most recent piece on Isaiah 61:1-2; I believing it can be demonstrated that Christ was reading from the Hebrew Masoretic Text, and not a Septuagint translation in the synagogue at Nazareth in Luke 4:

Another piece I'd really like to share with the Board is the following post on Psalm 22:16, arguing that the last letter of the disputed word "kaaru" is a small waw:

I have other articles too and welcome discussion. Thank you for reading this message; grace and peace to you.

Joseph
 
Hi Joseph,
Your article on Ps 22 was interesting but leaves a number of questions unanswered.
1) Certainly there are large letters at key verses in the MT, as you examples show, but the little letters seem less obvious. Why would a scribe put diminutive vavs at Jer 50:11, given the risk that these would inevitably be likely to be misread as yod's? How would your theory distinguish between miswritten vav's (which are by no means uncommon in the MT) and diminutive vavs?
(By the way, I think there is a typo in your article: you wrote "The waw was therefore a diminished jot, so to represent the nails in Christ’s hands and feet", but it's the other way round: a yod would be a diminshed vav, not vice versa).

2) Why would Jewish Masoretic scribes (according to your theory) utilize diminished vavs "to represent the nails in Christ’s hands and feet", especially in passages that have no connection to the crucifixion like Jer 50:11?

3) The vav/yod issue is not the only one with ka'ari; in fact, if that were the only problem, it would be more simply explained as a poorly written vav. You still have to explain the unexpected 'aleph. And of course, even if you account for that, krh doesn't mean to pierce but to dig, as in a pit (Jer 18:20; Ps 57:7), well (Gen 26:25; Num 21:18), or grave (Gen 50:5). HALOT lists 11 other Biblical examples, none of which means "pierce". Ps 40:7 has sometimes been thought to mean "Pierce" through a false parallel with Ex 21:6, but the latter uses an entirely different Hebrew verb.

4) Jerome's rendering is interesting, but he wouldn't be the only one to depart from the MT at this point. The KJV does the same thing, even though elsewhere it is generally very attached to the Second Rabbinic Bible text. I don't think it definitively proves he was working from a different text than the later majority MT, though it is not impossible.
 
I would like to commend you for this sensible statement:

"It is not a problem for us that variants exist within the Hebrew confessional text. I think that at times, advocates of our position have been reluctant to admit this, because we fear being accused of uncertainty. However, there is difference between judging between variants from a pure textual tradition of the original language, and making the Word of God constantly subject to archaeological discoveries concerning ancient translations, as if the streams were purer than the sources."
 
Hi Joseph,
Your article on Ps 22 was interesting but leaves a number of questions unanswered.
1) Certainly there are large letters at key verses in the MT, as you examples show, but the little letters seem less obvious. Why would a scribe put diminutive vavs at Jer 50:11, given the risk that these would inevitably be likely to be misread as yod's? How would your theory distinguish between miswritten vav's (which are by no means uncommon in the MT) and diminutive vavs?
(By the way, I think there is a typo in your article: you wrote "The waw was therefore a diminished jot, so to represent the nails in Christ’s hands and feet", but it's the other way round: a yod would be a diminshed vav, not vice versa).

2) Why would Jewish Masoretic scribes (according to your theory) utilize diminished vavs "to represent the nails in Christ’s hands and feet", especially in passages that have no connection to the crucifixion like Jer 50:11?

3) The vav/yod issue is not the only one with ka'ari; in fact, if that were the only problem, it would be more simply explained as a poorly written vav. You still have to explain the unexpected 'aleph. And of course, even if you account for that, krh doesn't mean to pierce but to dig, as in a pit (Jer 18:20; Ps 57:7), well (Gen 26:25; Num 21:18), or grave (Gen 50:5). HALOT lists 11 other Biblical examples, none of which means "pierce". Ps 40:7 has sometimes been thought to mean "Pierce" through a false parallel with Ex 21:6, but the latter uses an entirely different Hebrew verb.

4) Jerome's rendering is interesting, but he wouldn't be the only one to depart from the MT at this point. The KJV does the same thing, even though elsewhere it is generally very attached to the Second Rabbinic Bible text. I don't think it definitively proves he was working from a different text than the later majority MT, though it is not impossible.
Hi Dr. Duguid,

Thank you for commenting; I read your book on Christ in the Old Testament when I was a new believer - thank you for writing this.

Regarding your points, firstly I've corrected the jot-waw mistake in my writing, so I'm glad you spotted it!

1) The little letters, as per my article, I think have diverse meanings: the little dalet in Proverbs 28:17 showing a man is diminished and somewhat less than a real man if he sheds blood through unlawful violence. The little heh in behibaram in Genesis 2:4 highlights the decay and perishing of all created things. The little beit in hav shows how covetousness diminishes people through taking from them unlawfully. So there can be various meanings for why a little letter is used.

In Jeremiah 50:11, I believe the diminished waw represents how God will bring the haughty Babylonians down low: the next verse (50:12) speaks of confounding and putting to shame Babylon's mother. And in Psalm 22:16, there's a representation of Christ's nails - and thinking about it, not so much because they look like nails (I'd say a waw looks more like a nail than a jot), but because this is the final stage of Christ's humiliation, as per Philippians 2:8: "and being found in fashion as a man, he humbled himself, and became obedient unto death, even the death of the cross;" see also 2 Cor. 5:21.

Regarding miswritten waws, I'd be glad to consider some concrete examples of such, but in many cases I think they would be eliminated by comparing different manuscripts and spotting the error that way, whereas I'd expect to see diminutive waws either occur more frequently, or to have been expressly noted as such by scholars who witnessed them (such as Glassius here, or the Masoretic annotators in other places, and Buxtorf following them).

2) I think that the diminutive waws are original to the Masoretic Text, via David's pen, from the Holy Spirit. I think I've answered why this occurs already in my answer for Point 1: because the Holy Spirit intends us to understand a particular message drawn out of the text, with the diminution of the letter representative of a diminution that the Scripture is pointing out, relating to the literal sense of the text.

3) I think extra letters and missing letters are just occasional occurrences, such as the apparently missing aleph in Jeremiah 18:3, which is written והנהו instead of וְהִנֵּה-הוּא (see BHS vs. the JPS, Ibn Ezra in Tsakooth). Then there is an extra aleph in the word for fish in Nehemiah 13:16, so it's spelled dalet-aleph-gimmel, whereas it's generally spelt dalet-gimmel (Genesis 9:2, Job 4:7, and even Nehemiah 3:3 & 12:39). Saadia Gaon tries to derive a meaning from it to suggest it causes extra worry when you try to sell fish on the sabbath (because now it's like the root word for worrying). I'm not sure about that, but I don't think it's wholly impossible for the sense of a roaring lion to be implied by the extra aleph either - especially given what occurs in Psalm 22:16. I don't see such a strong difference between digging and piercing, as to dig means to bore a hole, and the nail digs into Christ's skin. And yes, Psalm 40:6 to me indicates that if you dig into someone's ear, you pierce it, as per BDB on the qal of karah.

4) I don't think Jerome was working from a later Masoretic Text; rather, I believe that the Masoretic Text with its vowel points has been passed down throughout the ages - though I do realize this opens up another topic of discussion. I am highlighting it to counter the claim that the Masoretic Text was tampered with to deny Christ, seeing as Jerome - translating from the Hebrew - renders it with much the same reading, centuries before the claimed corruption occurred. I do think it's plausible that the Vulgate of the papists was a corrupted version of Jerome's vulgate, following William Whitaker's argument, though again, this opens up yet another topic.

Many thanks for your interaction.

Blessings,

Joseph
 
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Hi Joseph,
Your article on Ps 22 was interesting but leaves a number of questions unanswered.
1) Certainly there are large letters at key verses in the MT, as you examples show, but the little letters seem less obvious. Why would a scribe put diminutive vavs at Jer 50:11, given the risk that these would inevitably be likely to be misread as yod's? How would your theory distinguish between miswritten vav's (which are by no means uncommon in the MT) and diminutive vavs?
(By the way, I think there is a typo in your article: you wrote "The waw was therefore a diminished jot, so to represent the nails in Christ’s hands and feet", but it's the other way round: a yod would be a diminshed vav, not vice versa).

2) Why would Jewish Masoretic scribes (according to your theory) utilize diminished vavs "to represent the nails in Christ’s hands and feet", especially in passages that have no connection to the crucifixion like Jer 50:11?

3) The vav/yod issue is not the only one with ka'ari; in fact, if that were the only problem, it would be more simply explained as a poorly written vav. You still have to explain the unexpected 'aleph. And of course, even if you account for that, krh doesn't mean to pierce but to dig, as in a pit (Jer 18:20; Ps 57:7), well (Gen 26:25; Num 21:18), or grave (Gen 50:5). HALOT lists 11 other Biblical examples, none of which means "pierce". Ps 40:7 has sometimes been thought to mean "Pierce" through a false parallel with Ex 21:6, but the latter uses an entirely different Hebrew verb.

4) Jerome's rendering is interesting, but he wouldn't be the only one to depart from the MT at this point. The KJV does the same thing, even though elsewhere it is generally very attached to the Second Rabbinic Bible text. I don't think it definitively proves he was working from a different text than the later majority MT, though it is not impossible.
Hi Dr. Duguid,

Thank you for commenting; I read your book on Christ in the Old Testament when I was a new believer - thank you for writing this.

Regarding your points, firstly I've corrected the jot-waw mistake in my writing, so I'm glad you spotted it!

1) The little letters, as per my article, I think have diverse meanings: the little dalet in Proverbs 28:17 showing a man is diminished and somewhat less than a real man if he sheds blood through unlawful violence. The little heh in behibaram in Genesis 2:4 highlights the decay and perishing of all created things. The little beit in hav shows how covetousness diminishes people through taking from them unlawfully. So there can be various meanings for why a little letter is used.

In Jeremiah 50:11, I believe the diminished waw represents how God will bring the haughty Babylonians down low: the next verse (50:12) speaks of confounding and putting to shame Babylon's mother. And in Psalm 22:16, there's a representation of Christ's nails - and thinking about it, not so much because they look like nails (I'd say a waw looks more like a nail than a jot), but because this is the final stage of Christ's humiliation, as per Philippians 2:8: "and being found in fashion as a man, he humbled himself, and became obedient unto death, even the death of the cross;" see also 2 Cor. 5:21.

Regarding miswritten waws, I'd be glad to consider some concrete examples of such, but in many cases I think they would be eliminated by comparing different manuscripts and spotting the error that way, whereas I'd expect to see diminutive waws either occur more frequently, or to have been expressly noted as such by scholars who witnessed them (such as Glassius here, or the Masoretic annotators in other places, and Buxtorf following them).

2) I think that the diminutive waws are original to the Masoretic Text, via David's pen, from the Holy Spirit. I think I've answered why this occurs already in my answer for Point 1: because the Holy Spirit intends us to understand a particular message drawn out of the text, with the diminution of the letter representative of a diminution that the Scripture is pointing out, relating to the literal sense of the text.

3) I think extra letters and missing letters are just occasional occurrences, such as the apparently missing aleph in Jeremiah 18:3, which is written והנהו instead of וְהִנֵּה-הוּא (see BHS vs. the JPS, Ibn Ezra in Tsakooth). Then there is an extra aleph in the word for fish in Nehemiah 13:16, so it's spelled dalet-aleph-gimmel, whereas it's generally spelt dalet-gimmel (Genesis 9:2, Job 4:7, and even Nehemiah 3:3 & 12:39). Saadia Gaon tries to derive a meaning from it to suggest it causes extra worry when you try to sell fish on the sabbath (because now it's like the root word for worrying). I'm not sure about that, but I don't think it's wholly impossible for the sense of a roaring lion to be implied by the extra aleph either - especially given what occurs in Psalm 22:16. I don't see such a strong difference between digging and piercing, as to dig means to bore a hole, and the nail digs into Christ's skin. And yes, Psalm 40:6 to me indicates that if you dig into someone's ear, you pierce it, as per BDB on the qal of karah.

4) I don't think Jerome was working from a later Masoretic Text; rather, I believe that the Masoretic Text with its vowel points has been passed down throughout the ages - though I do realize this opens up another topic of discussion. I am highlighting it to counter the claim that the Masoretic Text was tampered with to deny Christ, seeing as Jerome - translating from the Hebrew - renders it with much the same reading, centuries before the claimed corruption occurred. I do think it's plausible that the Vulgate of the papists was a corrupted version of Jerome's vulgate, following William Whitaker's argument, though again, this opens up yet another topic.

Many thanks for your interaction.

Blessings,

Joseph

What do you think about the interpetation presented here?
https://www.tbsbibles.org/page/They...R0DtZg2zjIKxGRZCGMT5F6M9y7B_XaZgnrHJ_RJZPkD6m


While at first I leaned towards your view, Joseph, I do think it presents some real problems to the view of the masoretic text.
Also, let me point out that even if כָּאֲרִי (ka'ari) is the original and it means "as a lion" rather than an archaic form of "the diggers (of)", this is by no means a big enough problem for us to abandon the masoretic text.
 
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I would like to commend you for this sensible statement:

"It is not a problem for us that variants exist within the Hebrew confessional text. I think that at times, advocates of our position have been reluctant to admit this, because we fear being accused of uncertainty. However, there is difference between judging between variants from a pure textual tradition of the original language, and making the Word of God constantly subject to archaeological discoveries concerning ancient translations, as if the streams were purer than the sources."

This corrects what I think has been a great weakness in the presentation of what's called the CT (EDIT: Confessional Text) position. For the reasons you quoted, those on the other side see the advocated position as unable to square with either reality or the pastors & scholars of the Westminster era. A statement like this is much easier to work with.
 
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This corrects what I think has been a great weakness in the presentation of what's called the CT position. For the reasons you quoted, those on the other side see the advocated position as unable to square with either reality or the pastors & scholars of the Westminster era. A statement like this is much easier to work with.
True, but to suggest that the alternative to the CT position is "making the Word of God constantly subject to archaeological discoveries concerning ancient translations" is simply nonsense. We have a test case in the Dead Sea scrolls: their discovery did not cause an upending of the Word of God, though it did demonstrate that some LXX readings are based on Hebrew originals, and that the earliest extant Biblical texts (like the numerous inscriptions and letters that archaeologists have discovered) were unpointed, making it difficult to defend the position that the Hebrew text has been pointed since earliest times. But as far as I am aware, there are no variants in the ESV or CSB (or even NIV) that are based solely on readings found in the DSS and nowhere else.
 
It is my understanding the Masoretic text was not available until about the 9th century AD. There were a few other texts before that which were used to compile the MT. But maybe I am wrong.
 
True, but to suggest that the alternative to the CT position is "making the Word of God constantly subject to archaeological discoveries concerning ancient translations" is simply nonsense. We have a test case in the Dead Sea scrolls: their discovery did not cause an upending of the Word of God, though it did demonstrate that some LXX readings are based on Hebrew originals, and that the earliest extant Biblical texts (like the numerous inscriptions and letters that archaeologists have discovered) were unpointed, making it difficult to defend the position that the Hebrew text has been pointed since earliest times. But as far as I am aware, there are no variants in the ESV or CSB (or even NIV) that are based solely on readings found in the DSS and nowhere else.

The DSS are singular, though. We have too much in this case and we know too much. Some of this leads to suspicion as to heterodoxy and what effect that might have on readings. OTOH, there are voices which maintain the DSS are under-utilised. There has also been a "slow drip" when it comes to recognising them, but it lies open to future generations to increase the flow. It took generations for the field of NT criticism to move into a genealogical method, and then a few more generations to lead to a whole new text-type. And what would happen if a similar cache of mss. was discovered?
 
And what would happen if a similar cache of mss. was discovered?
The same thing that happened when more medieval manuscripts were discovered. Calvin knew of no Hebrew manuscripts that had the reading that he found in the LXX. Now we know that there were a few medieval manuscripts that have the same reading, which provides additional warrant for the text as it stands in all the translations we use, without having to resort to speculations about "diminished vavs" or Jewish tampering with the text. The additional discoveries of the Dead Sea Scrolls have actually resulted in less emendations of the text than before: no contemporary translation would follow the LXX ahead of the MT in the way that, e.g. the RSV did, thus vindicating in very large measure the MT.
 
The same thing that happened when more medieval manuscripts were discovered. Calvin knew of no Hebrew manuscripts that had the reading that he found in the LXX. Now we know that there were a few medieval manuscripts that have the same reading, which provides additional warrant for the text as it stands in all the translations we use, without having to resort to speculations about "diminished vavs" or Jewish tampering with the text. The additional discoveries of the Dead Sea Scrolls have actually resulted in less emendations of the text than before: no contemporary translation would follow the LXX ahead of the MT in the way that, e.g. the RSV did, thus vindicating in very large measure the MT.

You are jumping back into the particular textual argument whereas I was avoiding that to confine my commendation to his general methodological approach.

If you find later mss. and they confirm what is already known, that is solid. Start finding variants, start choosing some variants and rejecting others, and now there is a methodological battle. Within the field of OT criticism you stand on the conservative side, for which I am thankful, but we both know that is not the only approach. This is where I think a confessional approach is needed. I don't think conservative emendation will hold its ground over time. In the NT they have given up trying to find the original text and the conservatives are a very small minority. The OT is different because of the added element of the Jews. Without a traditional grounding it would likely go the way of the NT.
 
You are jumping back into the particular textual argument whereas I was avoiding that to confine my commendation to his general methodological approach.

If you find later mss. and they confirm what is already known, that is solid. Start finding variants, start choosing some variants and rejecting others, and now there is a methodological battle. Within the field of OT criticism you stand on the conservative side, for which I am thankful, but we both know that is not the only approach. This is where I think a confessional approach is needed. I don't think conservative emendation will hold its ground over time. In the NT they have given up trying to find the original text and the conservatives are a very small minority. The OT is different because of the added element of the Jews. Without a traditional grounding it would likely go the way of the NT.
You may feel free to direct me to a link here or elsewhere rather than having to explain to me what possibly should be obvious, but I'm a bit lost over several terms.
- What is a confessional approach to text criticism? Is this referring to the WCF assertion that the Hebrew text of the OT is the inspired text?
- What is meant by "conservative emendation"?
- Who has given up trying to find the original text of the NT?

I did read the articles in the OP as well as the TBS article, but I would be foolish to pretend I understood them in-depth. I have a first-year student's knowledge of Greek, absolutely no knowledge or comprehension of Hebrew, and that I have a layman's grasp of text criticism is readily apparent to anyone who's ever interacted with me on here.
 
You may feel free to direct me to a link here or elsewhere rather than having to explain to me what possibly should be obvious, but I'm a bit lost over several terms.
- What is a confessional approach to text criticism? Is this referring to the WCF assertion that the Hebrew text of the OT is the inspired text?
- What is meant by "conservative emendation"?
- Who has given up trying to find the original text of the NT?

I did read the articles in the OP as well as the TBS article, but I would be foolish to pretend I understood them in-depth. I have a first-year student's knowledge of Greek, absolutely no knowledge or comprehension of Hebrew, and that I have a layman's grasp of text criticism is readily apparent to anyone who's ever interacted with me on here.

There are a lot of ins and outs I will not be able to convey in a brief space, but in general:

Yes, WCF 1.8, but more the part about preservation for the purpose of appeal. The idea of a "lost and found" department is problematic.

Conservative emendation makes selective changes to the MT on the basis of agreement with the LXX and/or Samaritan Pentateuch. But it is highly selective, not systematic like the changes in the TR of the NT. There are projects under way for more inclusion of the DSS in the OT text. As with the NT I expect this this will eventually run its course and make more drastic changes, only the danger will be greater because of modern relativism. Traditional Jewish influence has a bearing on the OT, but if affairs turn against the Jews that could be a liability.

NT textual critics in the main are only seeking for the earliest text that can be reconstructed, not the 1st cent. text; and many of them don't really believe in a stable 1st cent. text at any rate. A lot of higher criticism enters into the field of textual criticism.
 
There are a lot of ins and outs I will not be able to convey in a brief space, but in general:

Yes, WCF 1.8, but more the part about preservation for the purpose of appeal. The idea of a "lost and found" department is problematic.

What is meant by preservation for the purpose of appeal? And a "lost and found" department? Meaning that God would allow parts of the true Scripture to become lost for a time?

Conservative emendation makes selective changes to the MT on the basis of agreement with the LXX and/or Samaritan Pentateuch. But it is highly selective, not systematic like the changes in the TR of the NT.

This seems like a strange approach. What is the basis for these selective changes?

There are projects under way for more inclusion of the DSS in the OT text. As with the NT I expect this this will eventually run its course and make more drastic changes, only the danger will be greater because of modern relativism. Traditional Jewish influence has a bearing on the OT, but if affairs turn against the Jews that could be a liability.

Inclusion of the DSS where it diverges from the MT? This sounds like an OT version of the CT approach to the New Testament, where a small number of ancient manuscripts are prioritized over a large number of less ancient manuscripts that (in my humble opinion) might testify to "lost" mss that were considered more trustworthy and worth copying.

NT textual critics in the main are only seeking for the earliest text that can be reconstructed, not the 1st cent. text; and many of them don't really believe in a stable 1st cent. text at any rate. A lot of higher criticism enters into the field of textual criticism.

I don't even know what to say to this. I can't fathom not believing in a stable 1st century text, namely, a set of 27 original manuscripts - one for each book of the NT. It would seem, if I now read you correctly, that the NT is viewed as a composite text that emerged over time, similar to higher-critical views of how the OT was written.

There is an interesting parallel to textual criticism in the world of music, though my knowledge is limited and I don't know who I would even contact to learn more. I have heard that many of the "best" manuscripts of the keyboard music of Bach were lost in WW2. Older published editions of Bach's works from the early- and mid-20th century utilized these manuscripts. Newer published editions of some of the same Bach works are based on the best currently available manuscripts, but some musician friends of mine have at least implied that these newer editions might be inferior in some respects. There's a lot of hearsay, several rounds of the game of telephone, before that information made it to me, but it's tended to lead me to think similarly about Biblical text criticism.
 
What is meant by preservation for the purpose of appeal? And a "lost and found" department? Meaning that God would allow parts of the true Scripture to become lost for a time?

According to WCF 1.8 the inspired Word in Hebrew and Greek is preserved for the church so that appeal can be made to the Word in those languages. The underlying assumption is that the Word has not been lost, but is accessible to the church. The Westminster divines had the Word of God in possession and formulated a Confession on the basis of it. If the Word was lost at the time of the Westminster Assembly and then found at a later stage one would expect to see a revision of the Confession to match this reality. An overt confessional position on this issue takes into account the underlying assumption contained in WCF 1.8.

This seems like a strange approach. What is the basis for these selective changes?

Traditionalism keeps them from becoming radical; but academia exerts pressure to acknowledge the earliest mss. are more reliable.

Inclusion of the DSS where it diverges from the MT? This sounds like an OT version of the CT approach to the New Testament, where a small number of ancient manuscripts are prioritized over a large number of less ancient manuscripts that (in my humble opinion) might testify to "lost" mss that were considered more trustworthy and worth copying.

Basically, yes; only Jewish tradition is a stabilising factor in OT criticism. The Christian tradition has a long history of indebtedness to the Jews for canon and text, as per Rom. 3.

I don't even know what to say to this. I can't fathom not believing in a stable 1st century text, namely, a set of 27 original manuscripts - one for each book of the NT. It would seem, if I now read you correctly, that the NT is viewed as a composite text that emerged over time, similar to higher-critical views of how the OT was written.

It is something evangelicals don't like to talk about, but it is the sad reality. Evangelicals like to cling to their tidy divorce of higher and lower criticism; liberals recognise there are children involved so it is not a clean break.
 
The same thing that happened when more medieval manuscripts were discovered. Calvin knew of no Hebrew manuscripts that had the reading that he found in the LXX. Now we know that there were a few medieval manuscripts that have the same reading, which provides additional warrant for the text as it stands in all the translations we use, without having to resort to speculations about "diminished vavs" or Jewish tampering with the text. The additional discoveries of the Dead Sea Scrolls have actually resulted in less emendations of the text than before: no contemporary translation would follow the LXX ahead of the MT in the way that, e.g. the RSV did, thus vindicating in very large measure the MT.
Dr. Duguid,

The point about diminished waws isn't just a speculation I'm throwing out there; it was argued by Salomo Glassius who was one of the top linguists of his day. I don't think the Jews tampered with the text (unlike those who discredit the Masoretic for this verse); I think that there could be explanations as to why we ended up with the two variant readings in the first place.

But if you're happy to agree that there are Masoretic readings of kaaru, then I'm very much in agreement with you. We may not all have the same explanation as to how the jot reading came about, but so long as we can all:

1) recognize the variant
2) affirm it as being part of the Masorah itself

Then my central point stands.

On diminished letters, I really recommend Buxtorf's expert treatment as translated and abstracted by Clement Barksdale.

It's free to read here.

Masora+Book+Cover.jpg

Blessings,

Joseph
[automerge]1747797694[/automerge]
It is my understanding the Masoretic text was not available until about the 9th century AD. There were a few other texts before that which were used to compile the MT. But maybe I am wrong.
We have evidence of a pointed Hebrew Bible going all the way back to the time of Christ.

See my blog post here:

From the Athenian Society in 1690:

"It is said in Juchasin (fol. 132. Col. 1): “In the year 956, or 984, there was a great persecution in Lyon, and then they brought out from thence the twenty-four books called the Bible, which Rabbi Hillel wrote, and by them they corrected all their books; and I have seen a part of them that were sold in Africa, and in my time they had been written nine hundred years. And Kimchi says in his grammar that the Pentateuch of it was at Toletola in Spain in his time.”

Here is a great supporting quote from Franciscus Junius on the antiquity of the vowel points:

“As for the antiquity of the vowels and accents, I am of their opinion, who maintain the Hebrew language as the exact pattern of all others, to have been plainly written (with them) from the beginning: seeing that they who are otherwise minded, do not only make doubtful the authority of the Scriptures, but in my judgment wholly pluck it up by the roots. for without the vowels and notes of distinction, it hath nothing firm and certain.”
 
True, but to suggest that the alternative to the CT position is "making the Word of God constantly subject to archaeological discoveries concerning ancient translations" is simply nonsense. We have a test case in the Dead Sea scrolls: their discovery did not cause an upending of the Word of God, though it did demonstrate that some LXX readings are based on Hebrew originals, and that the earliest extant Biblical texts (like the numerous inscriptions and letters that archaeologists have discovered) were unpointed, making it difficult to defend the position that the Hebrew text has been pointed since earliest times. But as far as I am aware, there are no variants in the ESV or CSB (or even NIV) that are based solely on readings found in the DSS and nowhere else.

I just realized I used CT as an abbreviation for "Confessional Text" when in discussion it usually means "Critical Text." So I don't know if the ambiguity of my post somehow influenced your response. Made a correction in my quoted post.

My point is simply, I like Joseph's statement of principle for what some call the Confessional Text position far better for the fact that it acknowledges we have to work with variants. The way many TR/ConfText guys have given their position it's like the acknowledgment of their existence is the gateway to liberalism and unbelief. I've found that too unrealistic to work with, and it actually hinders acceptance of the position.

Also, friendly FYI, I have used the DSS to vindicate the authenticity of the Old Testament before.

Traveling, so have to keep this short.
 
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