RamistThomist
Puritanboard Clerk
PiV = sexual intercourse. I abbreviated human body parts. I = in.
You mean coitus. Sexual intercourse has a much broader range of meaning.
Coitus. Correct.
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PiV = sexual intercourse. I abbreviated human body parts. I = in.
You mean coitus. Sexual intercourse has a much broader range of meaning.
I'm reading Heppe's Reformed Dogmatics and on page 422 he says that Eve was a virgin up through the fall of man.
Is this common knowledge and can we necessarily conclude this?
Why does the Fall need to happen before conception/birth of Cain?
The offspring of Adam are not sinful only because they were concieved in sin or committed acts of sin.
The offspring of Adam are sinful because they participated in the sin comitted by their federal head/representative, Adam, thus breaking the covenant of works.
If Eve and Cain did not sin, and if Cain was not concieved in sin, they would still have participated in the sin of Adam due to his Federal Headship.
Did sex before the Fall always result in conception? I think even periodic infertility is a result of the Fall, so I would have to say yes. Did Cain have to be conceived in sin? If so, then it seems Eve was a virgin.
Did a woman have periods before the Fall? Would that change your statement?
I don't think I would label the body not being reprodcutively receptive 3 weeks of the month as infertile. Infertile is more long-term. Plus one can also view the period as part of nature's cycle, or something like that.
I don't think I would label the body not being reprodcutively receptive 3 weeks of the month as infertile. Infertile is more long-term. Plus one can also view the period as part of nature's cycle, or something like that.
Perhaps you are right. It does seem a bit strange though that God would give the command "be fruitful and multiply" and yet Adam and Eve only had sex out of season.