Hebrews 2:16

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Ravens

Puritan Board Sophomore
"For indeed He does not give aid to angels, but He does give aid to the seed of Abraham."

I have always understood this verse to mean, "For indeed He does not give aid to angels, but He does give aid to man." Thus, it kinda took on a "species" bent. And, though I know that emphasis is there, the other day I was reading and wondered why it said "Abraham" and not "Adam."

Wouldn't that be more logical if the author were only trying to make a "species" or genus point? Is this possibly referring to the "seed of Abraham" or "children of Abraham" as Paul sees it, and, thus, referring to the elect, especially in the light of verse 13?

This might be common knowledge (I wasn't raised Reformed) or it might be dead wrong. I was just curious, as I had never seen this verse cited in any treatment of limited atonement (though my mind enjoys playing tricks on me).

Just curious.
 
***"For indeed He does not give aid to angels, but He does give aid to the seed of Abraham."***

Christ died on the cross to liberate the captives,which were the seed of Abraham and not the angels.Christ lays hold ,not the seed of Adam(which is ALL mankind),but only the seed of Abraham,the father of the elect.
andreas.:candle:
 
Thanks. I've believed in limited atonement for a couple of years now, I've just never really seen it in the context of that verse.
 
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