ReformedWretch
Puritan Board Doctor
Larry, while I have not really participated in this I must say that from reading your posts I had assumed your were taking the side of the KJVO crowd.
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Anyone who wants can try to read and study Greek. But, when it comes to criticizing the work of others, someone's knowledge needs at least to be equal to that of those whose work they are criticizing.
Is this true just for the KJV, or does this apply to other versions as well? Should a person's knowledge of Greek,etc be at least equal to those who translated the NIV before they criticize criticize the NIV?
Originally posted by webmaster
Check your U2U Joe. (Upper left top screen).
Originally posted by Joe Keysor
You say "we have to figure out WHICH KJV we are talking about, 1607 1st draft, or 1611, revision." That is a problem for those who assert the divine inspiration of the KJV. It is not a problem for someone like me who is glad it was revised in the 1700's, and would gladly use a modern revision if it were based solely on the TR and consisted only of grammatical changes to update antique language, without taking into account the follies of modern so-called scholarship.