Do you mean unconfessional or extraconfessional? The WCF recognizes the three-fold division of the law in Ch.19: "Besides this law, commonly called moral, God was pleased to give to the people of Israel, as a church under age, ceremonial laws....(.3) To them also, as a body politic, He gave sundry judicial laws....(.4).
So in your view everything in the Hebrew Scriptures outside Exodus 20 and Deuteronomy 5 is civil or ceremonial?
I find this statement (emphasis added) is extraconfessional - the Westminster Standards simply states that "The moral law is summarily comprehended in the ten commandments" (WLC 98). IT does not say "fully." I agree that the 10 Commandments fully summarize the moral law, but doesn't a summary suggest there are more details? For example, WCF 19.1-2 states that the moral law predates the 10 Commandments: "God gave to Adam a law, as a covenant of works....This law, after his fall, continued to be a perfect rule of righteousness; and, as such, was delivered by God upon mount Sinai in ten commandments." And then it states that "The moral law doth forever bind all... also in respect of the authority of God the Creator who gave it. Neither doth Christ in the gospel any way dissolve, but much strengthen, this obligation. Although true believers be not under the law as a covenant of works... yet is it of great use to them... as a rule of life, informing them of the will of God and their duty....The promises of it, in like manner, show them God’s approbation of obedience, and what blessings they may expect upon the performance thereof (WCF 19.5-6, emphasis added).
Scripture is clear that the Fifth Commandment is "the first commandment with promise" (Ephesians 6.2, emphasis added) - so what are the other commandments that contain promises? Consider the proof text used for the underlined portion of 19.6 above - it does not refer to Exodus or Deuteronomy but to Leviticus 26. Isn't everything in the Hebrew Scriptures a reference, explanation, or example of either the moral, ceremonial, or judicial law? The moral law portions are not restricted simply to the 10 Commandments - you can find all aspects of the moral law just in the first 4 chapters of Genesis. Yes, the 10 Commandments fully summarize the moral law, but Paul is clear in Romans 1 that the moral law exists and is knowable apart from knowledge of the exact wording of the 10 Commandments contained in Exodus 20 and Deuteronomy 5. Even the existence of these 2 distinct versions of the 10 Commandments seems to point to the fact that these 10 "words" are summaries, with neither being a "full" account of the moral law, but rather, as the Confession states, a summary, with examples and further instruction given throughout the Hebrew Scriptures, which is why the WLC in expounding the duties required in the commandments lists text after text after text referring to places in the Hebrew Scriptures where the commandment is further fleshed out. The moral law is "the declaration of the will of God to mankind" (WLC 93) and that declaration is not limited to the Ten Words however a complete summary they may be.
I admit that determining whether a passage in the Hebrew Scriptures is referring to the moral, judicial, or ceremonial law is extraconfessional. I also admit that Numbers 30 could be considered judicial since the passage begins "Then Moses spake unto the children of Israel according to all that the Lord had commanded him. Moses also spake unto the heads of the tribes concerning the children of Israel, saying, This is the thing which the Lord hath commanded" (vv.1-2), and thus is perhaps more likely required under the "general equity" clause. But it seems as though it could also be considered an application of the Fifth Commandment, or even the created family order, the moral law predating its summary in the Decalogue.
