So let me get this straight. God allowed a real supernatural event to be performed by Pharoah's magicians in the name of their false gods, so as to fool (delude) the Egyptians into believing these false gods had real power.
The purpose was to delude or harden pharaoh. It obviously wasn't purposed towards all of Egypt as in Ex. 11:2-3, God purposed to prepare the Egyptians to give generously to the Hebrews and even Pharaoh's servants saw Moses as a great man so that the Hebrews "plundered" all of Egypt.
Then He disallows further supernatural events by the same folks to show them... what?... that their false gods have some power, just not as much as He does? How does this make any sense?
Um, no. The purpose was to show them that their gods had
no power. Note that in Ex. 7:11-13, Aaron's rod being a serpent swallowed up the other snakes which the magicians had imitated. This should have been cause enough to convince Pharaoh who was in the right but instead it hardened his heart.
In Ex. 8:7, the magicians imitated the bringing up of frogs but they had no power to remove the ones that God had brought up. Revelation 16:13 may be an allusion to this - "the dragon, like the magicians, intended to deceive, but God intended by them to destroy those that would be deceived" (Matthew Henry's commentary).
In Ex. 8:18, the magicians are unable to perform the bringing up of gnats. Thus in v. 19 they say, "This is the finger of God." That is to say, they were overpowered that "this check and restraint put upon us must needs be from a divine power." It is as if God said, "Hitherto shall he come but no further." The magicians inability showed whence they had their power in the former instances and they had no power over Moses except that which was given from above. They themselves were not deceived by it, their purpose was to deceive pharoah. However, now even those who had deceived him said enough to undeceive him but pharaoh grew more and more obstinate. This makes sense because those that are not made better by God's word and providence are often made worse.
So the point was their gods had no power. Their snakes were swallowed, they had no power to remove the plagues that God had brought on, and they were not even able to imitate the third plague God brought on when he brought on 7 more. God permitted these delusions to be wrought for wise and holy ends, that those who did not receive the truth might believe a lie, and herein was God righteous. "Note, God suffers the lying spirit to do strange things, that the faith of some may be tried and manifested (Deut 13:3, 1 Cor 11:19), that the infidelity of others may be confirmed, and that he who is filthy may be filthy still, 2 Cor 4:4" (Matthew Henry). Is it too hard for God then to use his supernatural abilities to delude some into believing a lie?
No point missed, sister. My question has not yet been answered, however. Did my dog break her chains by supernatural power? Did the psychos I've seen perform their feats by magic? Or is a person who is out of their minds or possessed by a demon capable of feats of strength and endurance beyond normal human ability because pain and self-preservation are absent from their motivations?
Yes, you did miss the point. This account in Mark 5 is not a prescription of what demon possession looks like. In other words, it is not saying that if someone or something breaks chains that we see as unbreakable, then they are demon possessed because that gives them the supernatural strength. Therefore, it is an erroneous conclusion to say that your dog breaks chains and therefore imply...what?...that this man was not really demon possessed as the Bible tells us he is??? The point is not that these are the symptoms but that 1) demon possession did happen during Jesus' life 2) The demon possession gave the man superhuman strength and a deluded mind.
The hard part about this discussion is that there is not a standard given on which to judge if someone has supernatural powers whether by demon possession or what have you...The Bible simply affirms that demon possession was a real occurrence that sometimes resulted in supernatural abilities. Of course, it also teaches that God always had a purpose in allowing that. In this day and age, I am honestly more likely to accuse a man like I saw in a video once who was "preaching" in front of a congregation by speaking in tongues, screaming, and seemingly getting hit by an invisible bat over and over again to be demon possessed than the many claims I hear of demon possession or supernatural feats.
I believe the use of the word supernatural in this thread is in reference to an ability to perform feats that go beyond or violate natural laws of the observable universe. Yes, angels and demons are supernatural beings in that they do no normally exist as observable beings in nature, but the question is are they capable of performing acts that violate natural law. I say only when God institutes such acts, They have no 'freewill' ability to perform such feats.
You're not making this distinction: There are supernatural
beings (God, angels, and demons) that are not a part of the natural world nor under natural laws (like gravity). There are supernatural acts which are acts that go outside of natural boundaries (such as raising from the dead, etc...). This distinction is important since you seem to gloss over the fact that though God is the source of everything that occurs supernaturally, it can be done by non-supernatural beings. It can also be done for one of 2 purposes: to further delude someone who has rejected the truth (as judgment) or to sanctify someone (as a blessing). These are the 2 purposes put forth in the Bible but it is also important to remember that God uses far more natural means to judge or bless someone (especially this day and age) than supernatural means.
So, yes, anyone besides God needs God-given authority to perform a supernatural act not because God is the only one who is supernatural (because angels and demons are) but because He is the only one who is sovereign.
---------- Post added at 09:26 AM ---------- Previous post was at 09:18 AM ----------
Question again.
What's the difference between the "magic" performed by Pharaoh's magicians and the "magic" performed by stage magicians today?
The magic done today has no bearings on this discussion. That's like asking, "What's the difference between Balaam's oracles given in Numbers 23 than the pagan prophecies given today?" The difference is that the first is given in a divine book and the straight forward reading from the context and the general principles from other Scriptures indicate that God granted them supernatural feats for a time to delude pharaoh whereas the latter is not. It's fallacious to use a modern example to interpret what the magicians did as opposed to what the context indicates they did.