Timmay
Puritan Board Freshman
Christ’s righteousness is imputed to us. Adam’s guilt is imputed to us. Are the two merely correlations of each other? Does the imputation of Adam’s guilt necessarily mean the only way to get Christ’s righteousness is through imputation? Do the means of the condemnation of the entirety of humanity actually contain the method of our salvation?
I don’t see any other way we could get Christ’s righteousness. And I know many would deny the imputation of Adam’s guilt why affirming the imputation of Christ’s righteousness.
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I don’t see any other way we could get Christ’s righteousness. And I know many would deny the imputation of Adam’s guilt why affirming the imputation of Christ’s righteousness.
Sent from my iPhone using Tapatalk