chuckd
Puritan Board Sophomore
I was reviewing some past threads on Jesus' impeccability and how we can say he was truly tempted if he did not have the ability to sin. On one of the threads Ed Walsh posted the section in Shedd's Dogmatic Theology where he discusses Christ's impeccability. Below he answers an objection that if we can talk about other limits and weaknesses of Jesus' human nature, why can we not talk about peccability?
I find this answer lacking as I feel it simply describes the problem in more detail. If the person Jesus is impotent, is God responsible for that impotency? If Jesus learns, do we charge God with ignorance?
I've been thinking on this problem and I think I have a much more fundamental answer. Humans being finite, passible, impotent, ignorant are all part of our nature. That's how we were made.
However, sin is contrary to our nature. Sin corrupted our nature. I think that's the fundamental difference between the two spheres of weakness that Shedd highlights. And Jesus never had a sin nature, or a corrupted nature. In a sense, he was truly human.
But it may be asked: If the properties of either nature may be attributed to the person of the God-man, why may not both peccability and impeccability be attributed to the person of the God-man? We say that Jesus Christ is both finite and infinite, passible and impassible, impotent and omnipotent, ignorant and omniscient, why may we not also say that he is both peccable and impeccable? If the union in one person of the two natures allows the attribution of contrary characteristics to the one God-man in these former instances, why not also in this latter?
Because, in this latter instance, divine nature cannot innocently and righteously leave human nature to its own finiteness without any support from the divine, as it can in the other instances. When the Logos goes into union with a human nature, so as to constitute a single person with it, he becomes responsible for all that this person does through the instrumentality of this nature. The glory or the shame, the merit or the blame, as the case may be, is attributable to this one person of the God-man. If, therefore, the Logos should make no resistance to the temptation with which Satan assailed the human nature in the wilderness and should permit the humanity to yield to it and commit sin, he would be implicated in the apostasy and sin. The guilt would not be confined to the human nature. It would attach to the whole theanthropic person. And since the Logos is the root and base of the person, it would attach to him in an eminent manner. Should Jesus Christ sin, incarnate God would sin, as incarnate God suffered when Jesus Christ suffered.
I find this answer lacking as I feel it simply describes the problem in more detail. If the person Jesus is impotent, is God responsible for that impotency? If Jesus learns, do we charge God with ignorance?
I've been thinking on this problem and I think I have a much more fundamental answer. Humans being finite, passible, impotent, ignorant are all part of our nature. That's how we were made.
However, sin is contrary to our nature. Sin corrupted our nature. I think that's the fundamental difference between the two spheres of weakness that Shedd highlights. And Jesus never had a sin nature, or a corrupted nature. In a sense, he was truly human.