Oh, there is also the Bible

Well, as a pretty recent convert to the reformed faith, it's hard to go into the scriptures without presuppositions or even knowing what the other side teaches.
I know it's not that simple. Hence the smiley.
Properly interpreting scripture takes time, care and effort. We are often lazy and jump to conclusions when they seem to match our presuppostitions. It is also very easy to "read-in" to a passage our presuppostitions.
As an example, John 5:28-29:
28 "Do not marvel at this, for an hour is coming when all who are in the tombs will hear his voice" 29 "and come out, those who have done good to the resurrection of life, and those who have done evil to the resurrection of judgment."
Note the "
all", bolded, in verse 28 as well as "
an hour", indicating a very short time (if not a literal hour).
But what do Dispensationalists do? They ignore the "plain" (literal

) reading of verse 28 ("all" and "an hour") and "read-in" 1000 years (or 1007 years) right after the second comma in verse 29 to get
those who have done good to the resurrection of life, and 1000 years later, those who have done evil to the resurrection of judgment.
The clear, plain, literal reading of this passage not just mentions the resurrection of the Just and of the Unjust but directly unites them into a single event. So, there is no basis at all in this passage to split these events apart. But they must be split in order to fit the Disp. view.
So, this is a clear "Amil" (or even PostMill) passage.
Remember, with "scripture interprets scripture" you let the clear interpret the less clear. So, when you come to Rev. 20 and the first and second resurrections, what do you do? [No, I will try to definitively explain Rev 20 here

].
First, you realize that Rev. 20 is not a "clear" passage and its interpretation is very disputed. Second the phrase "First resurrection" apprears no where else in scripture and "second resurrection" is not actually mentioned [but it says "The rest of the dead did not come to life until (1000 years after the first res)"], so what is meant by the "rest of the dead"? Those part of the "first resurrection" are referred to as "souls" and are martyrs or did not worship the beast (they are believers not unbelievers).
So, many questions and some not very easy. John 5:28-29 and very easy and plain. Let John 5 guide your understanding of Rev. 20:4-6. So, can Rev. 20:4-6 fit the Disp. view? Possibly (but there are other issues). An Amill view? Possibly. It depends on how we understand "first resurrection" and who is in view. But this is a difficult passage so much care must be taken.
[BTW, Amill understandings of "first resurrection" - taken from scripture - are 1) conversion 2) translation to heaven, "with Christ", after death before the second coming. I go with (2) - note use of "souls" in verse 4.]
Bottom line is we can't read-in what is not there, only go as far as the passage goes - and no further.
Ask quesitons like:
- What does it allow?
- What does it rule out?
- What is clear?
- What is difficult where we need to not be dogmatic?
- What limits/application is clear? E.g. the "binding" of Satan is not absolute but only spoken of that "he might not deceive the nations."
We can not force scripture to say to much in order to fit our views. And we must allow it so say what it actually does - not ignore implications we do not like!
Again, time, care and
honesty in interpretation. We are all guilty of not doing it right, but we must prayfully work to handle scripture correctly.
Long post, but I hope it helps.