The High Priestly Prayer

[InevitablyReformed]

I have a question concerning Limited Atonement and John 17:1-26. I was listening to Sproul's podcast concerning LA and the "hard sayings" of Jesus and he was going through this passage. In verse 9, Jesus says: "I pray for them, I do not pray for the world but for those whom You have given Me, for they are Yours."

Now, it seems to me that Jesus here is praying for the twelve disciples specifically--not all believers (contention 1). So, if this is the case, can verse 9 be used to support LA (contention 2)? I know that Jesus then goes on to pray for all believers in verse 20.

I don't bring this up to nitpick, I just want to err on the side of caution when exegeting a specific verse to support a doctrine. Thoughts?

 

[Wooster]

So, if this is the case, can verse 9 be used to support LA (contention 2)?

I believe it can because Jesus makes it clear that He's only praying for a specific group -- those whom the Father has given Him -- and all believers are included later in that same prayer.

I don't think He would begin by saying "I'm only praying for those the Father has given me," only to include those not given to Him later on.

It's amazing how I never noticed verses like this before I became Reformed.