OZR
Puritan Board Freshman
Someone in my church asked me: Is the doctrine of the Trinity, as formulated by the councils, infallible in the same way as the Bible? Assuming that the Bible is infallible and inerrant, and that it believes in the doctrine of the Trinity that God is one in essence and subsists in three persons, I certainly believe the doctrine of the Trinity is true because it is based on the infallible Scriptures. I also believe the efficient cause of both is distinct.
The efficient cause of the Bible is God himself who inspires, while the efficient cause in the councils were the Council Fathers, bishops, and theologians themselves, who were enlightened only by the Holy Spirit.
The material cause, on the one hand, is the text itself inspired by God or the objective materialization of special revelation. On the other hand, the material cause would be the formulation that is neither equivocal nor univocal, but analogous to the being of God.
The final cause, on the one hand, is to reveal God, save the sinner, and form God's people in the truth (cf. 2 Tim 3:15–17). Its purpose is universally normative and permanent: it is the norm of norms. On the other hand, the final cause of the other is to explain, defend, and protect the truth revealed in Scripture, especially against heresies (such as Arianism). It has a hermeneutical, apologetic, and ecclesial purpose.
On the other hand, the formal cause of the latter would be the logical and conceptual structure that organizes the theological content based on Scripture. For example, the use of categories such as ousia, hypostasis, and persona, and its coherence with biblical revelation. I believe this should allow us to see that the form of Trinitarian conceptualization is not infallible per se, but that it is true and reliable because it is based on the infallible and inerrant word of God. So, although its ecclesial, conceptual, analogical form is not per se infallible like the Word of God, it is reliable and correct because it is based on and consistent with the inspired word of God.
If anyone could help me give a better, and perhaps briefer, answer, and then explain why, I would be very grateful.
The efficient cause of the Bible is God himself who inspires, while the efficient cause in the councils were the Council Fathers, bishops, and theologians themselves, who were enlightened only by the Holy Spirit.
The material cause, on the one hand, is the text itself inspired by God or the objective materialization of special revelation. On the other hand, the material cause would be the formulation that is neither equivocal nor univocal, but analogous to the being of God.
The final cause, on the one hand, is to reveal God, save the sinner, and form God's people in the truth (cf. 2 Tim 3:15–17). Its purpose is universally normative and permanent: it is the norm of norms. On the other hand, the final cause of the other is to explain, defend, and protect the truth revealed in Scripture, especially against heresies (such as Arianism). It has a hermeneutical, apologetic, and ecclesial purpose.
On the other hand, the formal cause of the latter would be the logical and conceptual structure that organizes the theological content based on Scripture. For example, the use of categories such as ousia, hypostasis, and persona, and its coherence with biblical revelation. I believe this should allow us to see that the form of Trinitarian conceptualization is not infallible per se, but that it is true and reliable because it is based on the infallible and inerrant word of God. So, although its ecclesial, conceptual, analogical form is not per se infallible like the Word of God, it is reliable and correct because it is based on and consistent with the inspired word of God.
If anyone could help me give a better, and perhaps briefer, answer, and then explain why, I would be very grateful.
