I wanted to see what your thoughts are, on a blog that I posted about the Psalms being Messianic via because David saying they were in 2 Sam 23.
tylermcnabb | Just another WordPress.com site
tylermcnabb | Just another WordPress.com site
Thus Saith David
- Thread starter T.A.G.
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Tyler,
I thought it was pretty interesting. I appreciated the alternate rendering of the latter portion of v1, and to know how the LXX and Vulgate gave it forth. The Masoretes weren't inspired (but they do represent a valuable segment of the history of interpretation).
I would strongly suggest you go back and edit what you wrote, because some of it is quite disjointed. You have also stuck various Scripture portions together in such a way as to either confuse the text, or it is not apparent what you are doing, for instance running the first line of v1 together with vv5-7, with no break. Perhaps you mean to juxtapose them, for the reader's benefit. But unless he has his Bible open, he will either think the words actually run together, or he will be unclear as to why he is asked to read v1a, v5, etc.
You might also check various translations, for instance, the NKJV renders v5 pretty much as you have it "alternatively" rendered, "Although my house is not so with God..." So, not all modern translations have a supposed interrogative there.
Just some thoughts.
I thought it was pretty interesting. I appreciated the alternate rendering of the latter portion of v1, and to know how the LXX and Vulgate gave it forth. The Masoretes weren't inspired (but they do represent a valuable segment of the history of interpretation).
I would strongly suggest you go back and edit what you wrote, because some of it is quite disjointed. You have also stuck various Scripture portions together in such a way as to either confuse the text, or it is not apparent what you are doing, for instance running the first line of v1 together with vv5-7, with no break. Perhaps you mean to juxtapose them, for the reader's benefit. But unless he has his Bible open, he will either think the words actually run together, or he will be unclear as to why he is asked to read v1a, v5, etc.
You might also check various translations, for instance, the NKJV renders v5 pretty much as you have it "alternatively" rendered, "Although my house is not so with God..." So, not all modern translations have a supposed interrogative there.
Just some thoughts.
Thanks for taking your time and looking at it. I saw what you said and I went back and fixed it 
Yes I believe the vowels are often correct, but at times when they have a chance to give an anti Messianic, or when Christological implications could be understood, they usally do go for a merely historical interpretation because of their presuppositions. This happens when there is one letter or a vowel that could shape the meaning. Usally these can be figured out when they do this from other translations of the proto hebrew text such as the lxx, as well as from internal evidence within the text itself
Yes I believe the vowels are often correct, but at times when they have a chance to give an anti Messianic, or when Christological implications could be understood, they usally do go for a merely historical interpretation because of their presuppositions. This happens when there is one letter or a vowel that could shape the meaning. Usally these can be figured out when they do this from other translations of the proto hebrew text such as the lxx, as well as from internal evidence within the text itself
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