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Ahhhh Scott, thanks again. Jackpot!
* Question 80: Can true believers be infallibly assured that they are in the estate of grace, and that they shall persevere therein unto salvation?
* Answer: Such as truly believe in Christ, and endeavor to walk in all good conscience before him, may, without extraordinary revelation, by faith grounded upon the truth of God's promises, and by the Spirit enabling them to discern in themselves those graces to which the promises of life are made, and bearing witness with their spirits that they are the children of God, be infallibly assured that they are in the estate of grace, and shall persevere therein unto salvation.
* Question 81: Are all true believers at all times assured of their present being in the estate of grace, and that they shall be saved?
* Answer: Assurance of grace and salvation not being of the essence of faith, true believers may wait long before they obtain it; and, after the enjoyment thereof, may have it weakened and intermitted, through manifold distempers, sins, temptations, and desertions; yet are they never left without such a presence and support of the Spirit of God as keeps them from sinking into utter despair.
What's the difference between the RC view and the Reformed view of infant baptism?
Peace,
jm
Is it common among infant baptists to believe in presumptive regeneration? Any links on the subject? I've been reading into it and keep finding Free Reformed articles, that's about it.
Try to find the Conclusions of Urtrecht of 1905. However I would say that the reason we baptise infants is not because we presuppose they are regenerate but because God has made a covenant with believers and their seed (Gen 17:7).

verse 10 in context.
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What's the difference between the way dispensationalists view the physical aspects of the "seed" and the way in which infant baptists view the physical aspects of the "seed?" As far as I can tell, there is little difference, both theological systems allow for a physical seed to recieve the promises of the covenant...but I thought we were "spiritual" children of Abraham?
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(Still not sure how applicable this is to be used by an Englishman but hey)I would say that the reason we baptise infants is not because we presuppose they are regenerate but because God has made a covenant with believers and their seed (Gen 17:7).
Try to find the Conclusions of Urtrecht of 1905. However I would say that the reason we baptise infants is not because we presuppose they are regenerate but because God has made a covenant with believers and their seed (Gen 17:7).
Care to explain?
Yes, I would too, Bruce. But that's exactly what is being presumed. If the word 'believer's' wasn't already taken, might it be a better word?I have been using the word 'presumptive' because the use of that the Free Reformed make out of it is not a consistent use; it is more of an abuse of the word. In our area the Free Reformed will paste anyone that has any connection at all with the CRC with the heresy of presumptive regeneration, and they usually don't care what anyone has to say in their defense against the charge: if you're CRC, then you're presumptive regenerationist, and baptize your children as your last responsibility to them to bring them up in the fear of the Lord. In other words, everyone in the CRC was guilty of the theology of the few.
Yes, there were some who practiced presumptive regeneration, even though they outwardly denied it, but to no greater percentage than the Free Reformed. I speak from personally looking into the matter in my two years in the Free Reformed, and having to answer the question many times over.
If this is what 'presumptive regeneration' is, then we should all reject it outright. But that is not what it really is. We might have a difficulty with the terms, such as whether it is presumptive regeneration or presumptive election, but the second term is not the problem with it. The question is; if God promises that He will be our God, and we believe Him at His Word, then is it right or wrong to presume upon that promise in our practice of baptizing believers and the children of believers? We do not know, and we can have no assurance, that our children will be infallibly saved, and that the Spirit will at some time call them to grace, if we baptize upon the basis of our promises to be faithful and our best efforts to do our part in the covenant. Baptism is a promise to us, a sign and a seal to us and our children, and it is one that we must depend upon to baptize at all, even if we baptize only those who make a credible profession of faith. We have no more assurance in man's own preseverance whether the baptisee is child or adult. If we baptize upon man's promise to be faithful, then we will be baptizing over and over again, because men do not keep their word. But if we baptize upon God's promise, then we baptize only once, for it is good for life. Whether a man stands or falls on his own, God's promise is never broken. He promises His grace to us that we might have assurance; and Christ is our surety of it.
I've written quite a bit on this before, and have been quiet on it for a long time now. I did't like where Scott and Matt were going with it. I believe in Covenant Theology too, but I don't agree with them on some of their conclusions. God has called each of us out of our covenant breaking theological predispositions unto Himself, even someone like me who was born in a Covenant Theology church setting. I don't set aside my need to presume because I've reached the right theological setting to understand and respond; I still need to believe in God's promises, and even more now than before.
So I'm going to refine my position a bit:
I think we can deny presumptive regeneration by making too much of it by making it Presumptive Regeneration. Take away those capital letters, take away any status it may have in Covenant Theology as a doctrine on its own, and use it merely as a descriptive of the doctrines that we already hold to, and then we have a right handle on it, I believe. So if we are talking about Presumptive Regeneration, then I'm against it; but if we're talking about presumptive regeneration, then I can't see how it can be denied.
Scott and John,
I therefore have a problem putting the idea of belief in the promise under the name presumptive regeneration because I am not focused on the regeneration of my children but on the promise of God.
What are the outworkings of that faith? Christ says:
Matthew 17:20 0 And He said to them, "Because of the littleness of your faith; for truly I say to you, if you have faith as a mustard seed, you shall say to this mountain, 'Move from here to there,' and it shall move; and nothing shall be impossible to you.
Scott, I don't understand how this is germane to what I'm saying. I'm not saying that we don't assume that our children's faith is real, I do. I believe they are praying as tiny Christians with faith as small as a mustard seed. They have been baptized into the Covenant and I treat them as fellow heirs just like I treat all the other members of my Church. I raise them according to the things revealed in God's Word regarding my duty to them and I trust in the promises of God, which are also revealed to me in His Word. What I detect in them is fruit of the hidden work of God but my focus is not on that which is hidden.
As Christians, we wait in anxious hope for Christ to return. We wait in hope because of what has been revealed with respect to the promise. What we are commanded not to worry about is the day of His return.
The secret things belong to God.

JohnV,
I think I understand what you mean to convey in your post. I don't think you are proposing anything radical, or even strictly improper.
Having said that, I still respectfully refuse the terminology. I won't use it, and I doubt its wisdom. Would we talk in terms of "presumptive regeneration" when talking about adults? About our spouse, assuming we married "in the Lord"? "Well, I presumed she was regenerated, that's why it was OK to marry her." Rather, we listened to her profession, we looked and saw fruit of the Spirit in her life. And then we acted accordingly.
With the newborn, we start doing the same things. We look for fruit of the Spirit, and we listen for words (teaching, asking questions, prompting for answers) that indicate our children are beginning to believe the truths we are teaching to (and living before) them.
I fail to see a rationale for making assumptions about where in the midst of an invisible salvation-work the children are (or may be). Is "presumption" the BASIS for the performance ANY parental duty?
My answer to that question is EMPHATICALLY negative. Equating belief in God and his Word with a belief (presumed) in a subjective reality in the life of an individual is overstepping the design of faith.
Fact: in all those (wonderful) promise verses, there is no promise that 1) God will or has already regenerated the person covenantally marked (proved when some apostatize); or 2) a promise to Bruce that his son, Junior, is elect (proved when our names/personal identities are not found in the Bible).
Those are general promises to believers, but they are not fulfilled based on the degree of my passion to own them.
I do believe them. And I believe in God-ordained means, so by faith and grace I will implement those means. And by faith I expect to see those means result in promised fruit in the children's lives.
I put this bit at the top, so to assure you I do not detect any disrespect in your post, nor do I offer any in return. Please accept my take as just a response, with specific disagreements. Thanks, brother.If any of this sounds disrespectful, I apologize. I'm not a writer nor a theological student, I'm just a believer raised in Queens New York.
If you ask me "Where does the Bible tell you to baptize your children," I hear you asking me "Where does the Bible tell you to put the sign of covenant inclusion on your children." The answer to that question is: Gen. 17. I'd agree with you if you said there might be more verses to the argument than that, but I don't know that I'd venture to say I thought there were any better, and certainly the argument would be far more difficult to demonstrate if this passage were not there at the foundation. So, I don't agree with your first belief.I see some discrepencies with your choice of Genesis 17:7 for the verse you selected to assert or represent a main force behind paedobaptism. I believe that presbyterians have better verses to back up their belief for paedobaptism; and I don't think this verse is strong at all. Exegetically speaking, you either have to take 17:7 in an all physically-literal or all physically-spiritual regard.
The biggest problem with this interpretation is that this is not what Abraham thought of the sign given to him. As Paul says in Rom. 4:11 "he received the sign of circumcision, a seal of the righteousness of the faith he had while he was in uncircumcision." So, the sign wasn't about simply being in an extended household, or how to be grafted into that physical family. It was about a family that was the nucleus of the Old Testament church. Land ownership was not the end-use of the covenant.If taken in a physical interpretation, from the context you'd have to agree that this covenant by God was for identifying a nation with relation to God. Sort of a familial identity stamp if you will. It is not in context referring to salvation, it only identified a promise God made to a group of a lineage of people. The end use of this covenant appears solely to be the ownership of a land that the children of Abraham was to own. Not all Israel is Israel.
1) Are you saying that if God gives a spiritual covenant sign, he has to give it to both sexes? On what grounds?This promise was very specific;
1.it was for males only (probably because they were recognized as normally to be the authority of the land). Why then, do presbyterians baptize female babies also. If the promise was very specific that it should be for males, for the end purpose which was to be the inheriters of land, and be authorities of it, (it makes sense that the practice was for males), then how did it change to apply for females.
1) Since it is not possible to know how often or where ritual circumcision was practiced outside Israel anciently, that point is moot. It only matters that for Israel, it was a sign that God appointed to have covenantal significance. It was a sign of all those promises God made Abraham (land, seed, blessing) that were tokens of the real issue--that he would be his God and theirs (v.7).2.it was to be circumciscion; a practice that is still in use, and still available to all families today. Why take this verse to refer to the practice of baptism of which although existed very minutely before the time of Christ, was used under a different pretense. It is a very different practice with a different value. Since baptism was available to Abraham, why wasn't it implemented in this covenant. The thought that comes to my mind is that God wanted to show that it was for men to inherit the land, not women.
Everyone (male) who was added to the nation was to be circumcised. That is being "grafted into Abraham's seed" externally. But this was not about a secular people, but the church. And the true sons of Abraham were the ones who had the faith of Abraham (Gal. 3:7). Joining Israel back in those days meant a serious chop-job. I think one would have ordinarily needed serious spiritual faith to make that commitment. And the same is true today, we are grafted onto the vine, Rom. 11:17ff, while some were broken off for unbelief, thus "making room" for us, as it were.3.it was to be for the lineage of Abraham. If I understand it correctly, presbyterians will baptize all babies of presbyterian believing families contrary to how the command was to be. It is done outside of the lineage of Abraham, which many presbyterians are not.
"4" is an assertion without foundation, and one that I have done at least some work here to demonstrate its falsity.4.it was for the end result of owning a land located in the middle east.
Now mind you, if you take this as a literally-physical covenant, then the above conditions fail if applied to presbyterian families. But works well with the truth of what happened in judeochristian history.
Heb. 11:10 tells us that Abraham was not looking for an earthly city. Abraham took the promises spiritually, but realized there was a temporal "cast" to them.But now, if the promise was literally-spiritual then I am assuming that the land that is promised is the spiritual beula land, or heaven. I also assume that presbyterians translate males to be people. Additionally, I take it that presbyterians will interpret the lineage of Abraham to be the spiritual seed of Abraham which means the people of faith (believers).
It is pure assertion to claim that the signs must be 100% of the other for them to be correlative. Why? Why can't there be fundamental similarity, without imposition? I've already shown that they both signified faith/regeneration when they are received by faith. They both serve as initiatory signs. It belongs to the Baptist to show why this is an insufficient similarity.If this covenant of circumcision for the male children of Abraham was to be literally-spiritual, then:
1.baptism cannot mean being put to death in Christ and being risen in Him. Or, being regenerated from death in sins, or whatever other similtudes there are for the act of being submerged in water or sprinkling etc.. The spiritual significance of circumscion and the spiritual significance of baptism are required to be equal if in fact you use this verse to show paedobaptism. I particularly think that it would have to be pretty close in action in order to signify the same covenant, unless you are creating a new perception of the covenant.
I'm afraid I have to tell you, you are wrong. Tell me, are you Abraham's descendent or not? And another question, what about circumcised converts? Where did they fall in this?2.it was to be for all of Abraham's descendants. I may be wrong, but all of Abraham's descendants were promised a piece of land proven by their circumscion. Baptism would then spiritually indicate their proof of ownership to heaven. Therefore, as Abe's children would be garaunteed a result of ownership, if follows that Baptized chilren are garaunteed heaven. Here's the difference I see: Abraham's children were most definitely the lineage of Abraham, but presbyterian children are most definitely not all believers. If being the seed of Abraham spiritually means being a believer, then it is obvious that children are not referred to in this verse.
There is no benefit, apart from faith. Instead, there is JUDGMENT. Just like circumcision. I reject the notion that the circumcised "benefitted" in any real way from his circumcision. That piece of land? Might as well be a millstone around his neck, and cast into the sea. Same for the godless child (or adult) baptized and apostatized.3.I know that paedobaptism doesn't garauntee salvation. And non-paedobaptism doesn't garauntee salvation, therefore, if in the end the baptized child is not a believer, what benefit was there to the baptism? There was a definite tangible result of circumcision, there is no definite tangible (nor definite) result in baptism.
Again, you believe in purely secular promises to these people. I reject. End of question.4.this verse becomes soteriological in nature. The circumcised babies were promised ownership, not possibility of ownership, but a real promise of ownership of a land.
I'll just say that taking verse 8, and calling that the determinative context is far too restrictive. Not to mention, the more important earlier verses in the chapter, the previous 5 chapters, the multiple references to giving Abraham the land several times previously, and the substance of the passage, which is focused not on the land, or inheritance, but on the seed of promise, and the extended offspring.Finally, I honestly wish that you don't misunderstand me, I'm not at all saying that I am opposed to presbyterians baptizing their children, all I'm saying is that I don't see it in 17:7's context. Notice that I am not refuting paedobaptism, I am only showing what I see from this verse is all.
Personally, as everyone says they do, I also claim the following: I am only taking the very simple meaning of what scripture says. The verse says that it was for Abraham's children, and for the purpose of attaining a land. To apply it spiritually (as with all verses) is also feesable, but with care. How you get baptism for babies of presbyterians with no garaunteed result of being saved from this verse, I just don't see it.
JohnV,
I think I understand what you mean to convey in your post. I don't think you are proposing anything radical, or even strictly improper.
Having said that, I still respectfully refuse the terminology. I won't use it, and I doubt its wisdom. Would we talk in terms of "presumptive regeneration" when talking about adults? About our spouse, assuming we married "in the Lord"? "Well, I presumed she was regenerated, that's why it was OK to marry her." Rather, we listened to her profession, we looked and saw fruit of the Spirit in her life. And then we acted accordingly.
With the newborn, we start doing the same things. We look for fruit of the Spirit, and we listen for words (teaching, asking questions, prompting for answers) that indicate our children are beginning to believe the truths we are teaching to (and living before) them. I fail to see a rationale for making assumptions about where in the midst of an invisible salvation-work the children are (or may be). Is "presumption" the BASIS for the performance ANY parental duty?
My answer to that question is EMPHATICALLY negative. Equating belief in God and his Word with a belief (presumed) in a subjective reality in the life of an individual is overstepping the design of faith. Fact: in all those (wonderful) promise verses, there is no promise that 1) God will or has already regenerated the person covenantally marked (proved when some apostatize); or 2) a promise to Bruce that his son, Junior, is elect (proved when our names/personal identities are not found in the Bible).
Those are general promises to believers, but they are not fulfilled based on the degree of my passion to own them. I do believe them. And I believe in God-ordained means, so by faith and grace I will implement those means. And by faith I expect to see those means result in promised fruit in the children's lives.
What if we started "presuming" on everything that faith told us to hope in? What if Abraham "presumed" on God's promise of the Land? When he arrived there, I think presumption would have had him digging a furrow, and planting a crop, and building a city on the first, best piece of ground he found--regardless of who was settled there. Can you see him? "hey God told me this was mine, Gen. 13:15; I'm just believing his word; these squatters are interlopers on my turf--Hey turkeys, AMSCRAY!"
Abraham didn't in fact presume the land was his; no, he believed in God that it was his, and his descendant's. He lived there, sojourning; he "redeemed" a plot of his land from an Amorite for a burial ground. I see a tremendous difference in those acts of faith in the promises from what presumption on the same promises would have wrought.
Question 5: How are the promises of God applicable to children since they are born sinful and depraved?
Answer: The promises of God are applicable to the children of believers since Christian parents presumptively believe their children are regenerate based on the Word of God and the command of God.[7]
7. Genesis 17:7; Acts 2:39; Ezekiel 36:24
Question 6: Does this presumption (that the children of believers are regenerate) negate the reality that these children are conceived in sin, or demonstrate an inconsistency with Total Depravity?
Answer: No. Children of believing parents are conceived in sin, corrupt, depraved and in need of salvation, [8] but their parents presume them to be regenerate, yet are actually regenerate by sovereign election at a time only God knows, if at all; [9] they are to be considered Christians by their parents based on the promise God has made to them, that God will in fact save them and be a God to them; [10] and this view is not inconsistent with Total Depravity since sovereign grace is the means by which God will regenerate and save a child. [11]
8. Genesis 6:5; Psalm 51:5; Romans 3:10-18
9. Luke 1:15; Ephesians 1:9
10. Genesis 17:7; Acts 2:39; 16:33.
11. Romans 4:16; Ephesians 1:3-10; 2:8-10.
Question 7: Are infants of believing parents to be considered Christians?
Answer: Yes.
Question 8: Why are infants of believing parents to be considered Christians?
Answer: Based on the command and promise of God, they are to be distinguished from the visible world,[12] and are united with believers inthechurch,[13] being federally holy before God [14] and marked by the covenant sign of circumcision [15] (as in the case of the patriarchs and Israelites) or of baptism [16] (as in the case of the covenant realized in Christ).
12. Genesis 3:15; Ezekiel 16:20-21; 1 Corinthians 2:12;
13. Ephesians 2:19; 3:15.
14. Malachi 2:15; 1 Corinthians 7:14
15. Genesis 17:10; Leviticus 12:3
16. Ezekiel 36:25; Matthew 28:19; Acts 2:39; 16:33
Bruce, thank you for the respectful response and in not taking offense by it, I hope I don't offend any paedobaptists here with it. Apologies to any if I did.
But it seems that I might be breaking this thread up into two ideas so should we start another thread to continue? I disagree with 90% of what you wrote, I agree with 2%, and you only reiterated what I wrote in the first place in about 8%. I'd like a chance to rebut if I may with the same cooperative interactive discussion we had on this one. Any chance we could continue this in another thread? It would probably be more organized that way.
Peace to you.
puritancovenanter made some good points in this thread.
http://www.puritanboard.com/forum/viewthread.php?tid=20426&page=1
The thread was closed without comment on the last three posts, I'm still interested in reading the responses.
jm