If we say that not ALL FAMILIES of the earth will be blessed in stem of Jesse, then we do not believe that the success of the gospel, as presented in Scripture, will actually take place. If we do not agree that all nations will be made Christ's disciples, and that the great commission will be fulfilled, then we do not believe in the success of the gospel.
I believe that your reading your postmil supposition into the text imposing upon it that "all families" must mean every single family, and that "all gentiles" must mean everysingle gentile, this hermeneutic is remiscient of the arminians polemic agains calvinism, no offense.
Roldan,
The fact that you repeat again and again that I'm "imposing" certain ideas on the text is not an answer, it is a sidetrack. If you intend to answer my arguments from Scripture, then the burden is put on you to show why we are not to read the Scripture exactly as it is written. Were you to argue against an Arminian, I would hope that you would not merely say "oh, that's you reading the Arminian position into the text". I hope (and am confident) that you would show him the proper interpretation of the texts under consideration. I don't think you have done this. The literal interpretation is always the first choice, unless something else in Scripture demands that we interpret something figuratively.
The language of the Great Commission that the "Nations" are the direct object of the sentence. "Make disciples" is the main verb. Grammatically, the Great Commission demands that the nations are made Christ's disciples. The nations are in the accusative case, meaning they are what are to be made disciples. If we want to say this means something else, then, again the burden rests on you. If you could cite a particular place elsewhere in Scripture, I would be willing to discuss.
I don't think we "are supposed to" allow the Old to interpret the New as you are meaning it. For instance, there are many things in the NT which take the OT for granted. In such instances, are we to read something in the NT out of the entire context of Scripture? I don't believe that this is a proper method. When we read the NT directly addressing the discontinuity with the OT, then I agree with your principal. Otherwise, it would be very foolish to simply assume that the two testaments are at variance. Also, the Great Commission is in the NT, and therefore this principal doesn't apply to this case.
Again, simply asserting that I'm reading something into this text doesn't mean you've answered my claim. What are the last days? When did they come to pass? Are we in the last days? When do they end? I'll even let you use the NT

I'm simply reading what Isaiah says, and if I'm misunderstanding this passage, then it behooves you to correct me, and tell me the proper understanding of this passage; not merely to assert that I'm performing eisegesis.
I proved this from Isaiah and from the Catechism, and no one has yet to prove me wrong by providing a counter explanation for all of the earth's kings going up to Zion to hear the Law, or God's adoption extending to Syrian and Egypt, etc.
In 1 Cor 15, Paul tells us that Christ will deliver up the kingdom to the Father (I think we can all agree that this is His 2nd coming in judgment) as follows:
Same idea as the Great Commission: all things are put under Christ's feet, and the church's task is to bring all things into subjection by the power of God's Spirit. Christ is reigning NOW, but we do not see all things subjected to Him. Mind you, I think Paul takes Isaiah for granted here, as well as the Abrahamic covenant, etc. etc. Even if he didn't, it is still clear that all things must be subjected to Christ
before the second coming. The amil position posits that all things have already been subjected to Christ. This is half right, but fails to take into account that having the rights to all things in heaven and up on the earth does not mean that God's will is being done on the earth as it is in heaven.
Thanks for reminding me; so do you think that my view is the puritan view? In other words, that I'm not distorting the Catechism's teaching, and that your view is out of accord with the catechism?
Romans 11, by the way, is talking about the physical descendants of Abraham when Paul discusses the call of the Gentiles, and the re-call of the Jews. The context in v.1 is Paul being "an Israelite, of the seed of Abraham, of the tribe of Benjamin." Is he speaking allegorically? Also, consider the context of Jew vs. Gentile in vss. 11, 12, 13, 15, 17, 21, 24, 25, 28, 31 and so forth. Clearly, in Scripture, the re-call of the Jews is of literal, flesh and blood Jews. This is the context and plain meaning of Paul's language in Romans 11, and no amount of spiritualizing can justify reading it otherwise.
It must be done to maintain a purely spiritual eschatology, but I don't think it can stand the plain meaning of Scripture.
I actually see the Amil position in their answer especially here...
"..that Christ would rule in our hearts here, and hasten the time of his second coming, and our reigning with him forever:"
None of what I have said contradicts Christ's reign over our personal souls. Rather, as Scripture and the Confession do, it simply recognizes that Christ's reign does not end there.
The postmil tendency is to read into everything that speaks with referrence to gospel succession, kindoms, families, nations their postmil supposition.
Again, this is assertion. Please prove that I have done this by providing alternate explanations for the passages I've cited. Could it actually be that the postmil suppositions are
derived from such passages? I think a common sense read of Scripture leads to such conclusion, and I think this is why the Westminster Assembly taught such in the Standards.
Lively and enjoyable discussion.
Cheers,
Adam